Top 103 CAT Data Interpretation Basics Questions With Video Solutions

Practice Data Interpretation Basics questions for CAT with detailed video and text solutions. Each and every questions is solved by the CAT Topper. These sets are essentially basic in nature and are easy to be solved if appeared in the exam. These sets essentially tests the calculation skills of the candidate. Approximation becomes a very important skill for solving DI Basic sets. 

Tips to Ace Data Interpretation Basic Questions

  • Keep solving questions from past CAT Previous Papers which will help you gain a fair understanding of the type and different level of questions that are being asked.
  • Learn approximation techniques. 
  • Learn all the reciprocals of percentages.
  • Learn multiplication tables until 20.
  • Learn squares, and cubes  until 40.
  • Learn techniques of vedic mathematics which be helpful while dealing with complex calculations.

CAT DI Basic Questions Weightage Over Past 4 Years

Year

Weightage

2023

2

2022

3

2021

5

2020

4

CAT 2020 Data Interpretation Basics questions

Instruction for set 1:

In a certain board examination, students were to appear for examination in five subjects:
English, Hindi, Mathematics, Science and Social Science. Due to a certain emergency situation, a few of the examinations could not be conducted for some students. Hence, some students missed one examination and some others missed two examinations. Nobody missed more than two examinations.

The board adopted the following policy for awarding marks to students. If a student appeared in all five examinations, then the marks awarded in each of the examinations were on the basis of the scores obtained by them in those examinations.

If a student missed only one examination, then the marks awarded in that examination was the average of the best three among the four scores in the examinations they appeared for. If a student missed two examinations, then the marks awarded in each of these examinations was the average of the best two among the three scores in the examinations they appeared for. The marks obtained by six students in the examination are given in the table below. Each of them missed either one or two examinations.

The following facts are also known.
I. Four of these students appeared in each of the English, Hindi, Science, and Social Science examinations.
II. The student who missed the Mathematics examination did not miss any other examination.
III. One of the students who missed the Hindi examination did not miss any other examination. The other student who missed the Hindi examination also missed the Science examination.

Question 1

Who among the following did not appear for the Mathematics examination?


Instruction for set 1:

In a certain board examination, students were to appear for examination in five subjects:
English, Hindi, Mathematics, Science and Social Science. Due to a certain emergency situation, a few of the examinations could not be conducted for some students. Hence, some students missed one examination and some others missed two examinations. Nobody missed more than two examinations.

The board adopted the following policy for awarding marks to students. If a student appeared in all five examinations, then the marks awarded in each of the examinations were on the basis of the scores obtained by them in those examinations.

If a student missed only one examination, then the marks awarded in that examination was the average of the best three among the four scores in the examinations they appeared for. If a student missed two examinations, then the marks awarded in each of these examinations was the average of the best two among the three scores in the examinations they appeared for. The marks obtained by six students in the examination are given in the table below. Each of them missed either one or two examinations.

The following facts are also known.
I. Four of these students appeared in each of the English, Hindi, Science, and Social Science examinations.
II. The student who missed the Mathematics examination did not miss any other examination.
III. One of the students who missed the Hindi examination did not miss any other examination. The other student who missed the Hindi examination also missed the Science examination.

Question 2

Which students did not appear for the English examination?


Instruction for set 1:

In a certain board examination, students were to appear for examination in five subjects:
English, Hindi, Mathematics, Science and Social Science. Due to a certain emergency situation, a few of the examinations could not be conducted for some students. Hence, some students missed one examination and some others missed two examinations. Nobody missed more than two examinations.

The board adopted the following policy for awarding marks to students. If a student appeared in all five examinations, then the marks awarded in each of the examinations were on the basis of the scores obtained by them in those examinations.

If a student missed only one examination, then the marks awarded in that examination was the average of the best three among the four scores in the examinations they appeared for. If a student missed two examinations, then the marks awarded in each of these examinations was the average of the best two among the three scores in the examinations they appeared for. The marks obtained by six students in the examination are given in the table below. Each of them missed either one or two examinations.

The following facts are also known.
I. Four of these students appeared in each of the English, Hindi, Science, and Social Science examinations.
II. The student who missed the Mathematics examination did not miss any other examination.
III. One of the students who missed the Hindi examination did not miss any other examination. The other student who missed the Hindi examination also missed the Science examination.

Question 3

What BEST can be concluded about the students who did not appear for the Hindi examination?


Instruction for set 1:

In a certain board examination, students were to appear for examination in five subjects:
English, Hindi, Mathematics, Science and Social Science. Due to a certain emergency situation, a few of the examinations could not be conducted for some students. Hence, some students missed one examination and some others missed two examinations. Nobody missed more than two examinations.

The board adopted the following policy for awarding marks to students. If a student appeared in all five examinations, then the marks awarded in each of the examinations were on the basis of the scores obtained by them in those examinations.

If a student missed only one examination, then the marks awarded in that examination was the average of the best three among the four scores in the examinations they appeared for. If a student missed two examinations, then the marks awarded in each of these examinations was the average of the best two among the three scores in the examinations they appeared for. The marks obtained by six students in the examination are given in the table below. Each of them missed either one or two examinations.

The following facts are also known.
I. Four of these students appeared in each of the English, Hindi, Science, and Social Science examinations.
II. The student who missed the Mathematics examination did not miss any other examination.
III. One of the students who missed the Hindi examination did not miss any other examination. The other student who missed the Hindi examination also missed the Science examination.

Question 4

What BEST can be concluded about the students who missed the Science examination?


Instruction for set 1:

In a certain board examination, students were to appear for examination in five subjects:
English, Hindi, Mathematics, Science and Social Science. Due to a certain emergency situation, a few of the examinations could not be conducted for some students. Hence, some students missed one examination and some others missed two examinations. Nobody missed more than two examinations.

The board adopted the following policy for awarding marks to students. If a student appeared in all five examinations, then the marks awarded in each of the examinations were on the basis of the scores obtained by them in those examinations.

If a student missed only one examination, then the marks awarded in that examination was the average of the best three among the four scores in the examinations they appeared for. If a student missed two examinations, then the marks awarded in each of these examinations was the average of the best two among the three scores in the examinations they appeared for. The marks obtained by six students in the examination are given in the table below. Each of them missed either one or two examinations.

The following facts are also known.
I. Four of these students appeared in each of the English, Hindi, Science, and Social Science examinations.
II. The student who missed the Mathematics examination did not miss any other examination.
III. One of the students who missed the Hindi examination did not miss any other examination. The other student who missed the Hindi examination also missed the Science examination.

Question 5

How many out of these six students missed exactly one examination?


Instruction for set 1:

In a certain board examination, students were to appear for examination in five subjects:
English, Hindi, Mathematics, Science and Social Science. Due to a certain emergency situation, a few of the examinations could not be conducted for some students. Hence, some students missed one examination and some others missed two examinations. Nobody missed more than two examinations.

The board adopted the following policy for awarding marks to students. If a student appeared in all five examinations, then the marks awarded in each of the examinations were on the basis of the scores obtained by them in those examinations.

If a student missed only one examination, then the marks awarded in that examination was the average of the best three among the four scores in the examinations they appeared for. If a student missed two examinations, then the marks awarded in each of these examinations was the average of the best two among the three scores in the examinations they appeared for. The marks obtained by six students in the examination are given in the table below. Each of them missed either one or two examinations.

The following facts are also known.
I. Four of these students appeared in each of the English, Hindi, Science, and Social Science examinations.
II. The student who missed the Mathematics examination did not miss any other examination.
III. One of the students who missed the Hindi examination did not miss any other examination. The other student who missed the Hindi examination also missed the Science examination.

Question 6

For how many students can we be definite about which examinations they missed?


Instruction for set 2:

XYZ organization got into the business of delivering groceries to home at the beginning of the last month. They have a two-day delivery promise. However, their deliveries are unreliable. An order booked on a particular day may be delivered the next day or the day after. If the order is not delivered at the end of two days, then the order is declared as lost at the end of the second day. XYZ then does not deliver the order, but informs the customer, marks the order as lost, returns the payment and pays a penalty for non-delivery. The following table provides details about the operations of XYZ for a week of the last month. The first column gives the date, the second gives the cumulative number of orders that were booked up to and including that day. The third column represents the number of orders delivered on that day. The last column gives the cumulative number of orders that were lost up to and including that day. It is known that the numbers of orders that were booked on the 11th, 12th, and 13th of the last month that took two days to deliver were 4, 6, and 8 respectively

Question 7

Among the following days, the largest fraction of orders booked on which day was lost?


Instruction for set 2:

XYZ organization got into the business of delivering groceries to home at the beginning of the last month. They have a two-day delivery promise. However, their deliveries are unreliable. An order booked on a particular day may be delivered the next day or the day after. If the order is not delivered at the end of two days, then the order is declared as lost at the end of the second day. XYZ then does not deliver the order, but informs the customer, marks the order as lost, returns the payment and pays a penalty for non-delivery. The following table provides details about the operations of XYZ for a week of the last month. The first column gives the date, the second gives the cumulative number of orders that were booked up to and including that day. The third column represents the number of orders delivered on that day. The last column gives the cumulative number of orders that were lost up to and including that day. It is known that the numbers of orders that were booked on the 11th, 12th, and 13th of the last month that took two days to deliver were 4, 6, and 8 respectively

Question 8

On which of the following days was the number of orders booked the highest?


Instruction for set 2:

XYZ organization got into the business of delivering groceries to home at the beginning of the last month. They have a two-day delivery promise. However, their deliveries are unreliable. An order booked on a particular day may be delivered the next day or the day after. If the order is not delivered at the end of two days, then the order is declared as lost at the end of the second day. XYZ then does not deliver the order, but informs the customer, marks the order as lost, returns the payment and pays a penalty for non-delivery. The following table provides details about the operations of XYZ for a week of the last month. The first column gives the date, the second gives the cumulative number of orders that were booked up to and including that day. The third column represents the number of orders delivered on that day. The last column gives the cumulative number of orders that were lost up to and including that day. It is known that the numbers of orders that were booked on the 11th, 12th, and 13th of the last month that took two days to deliver were 4, 6, and 8 respectively

Question 9

The delivery ratio for a given day is defined as the ratio of the number of orders booked on that day which are delivered on the next day to the number of orders booked on that day which are delivered on the second day after booking. On which of the following days, was the delivery ratio the highest?


Instruction for set 2:

XYZ organization got into the business of delivering groceries to home at the beginning of the last month. They have a two-day delivery promise. However, their deliveries are unreliable. An order booked on a particular day may be delivered the next day or the day after. If the order is not delivered at the end of two days, then the order is declared as lost at the end of the second day. XYZ then does not deliver the order, but informs the customer, marks the order as lost, returns the payment and pays a penalty for non-delivery. The following table provides details about the operations of XYZ for a week of the last month. The first column gives the date, the second gives the cumulative number of orders that were booked up to and including that day. The third column represents the number of orders delivered on that day. The last column gives the cumulative number of orders that were lost up to and including that day. It is known that the numbers of orders that were booked on the 11th, 12th, and 13th of the last month that took two days to deliver were 4, 6, and 8 respectively

Question 10

The average time taken to deliver orders booked on a particular day is computed as follows. Let the number of orders delivered the next day be x and the number of orders delivered the day after be y. Then the average time to deliver order is $$\frac{(x+2y)}{(x+y)}$$. On which of the following days was the average time taken to deliver orders booked the least?

CAT 2008 Data Interpretation Basics questions

Instruction for set 1:

Directions for following three questions: Answer the following questions based on the information given below: There are 100 employees in an organization across five departments. The following table gives the department-wise distribution of average age, average basic pay and allowances. The gross pay of an employee is the sum of his/her basic pay and allowances.

There are limited numbers of employees considered for transfer/promotion across departments Whenever a person is transferred/promoted from a department of lower average age to a department of higher average age, he/she will get an additional allowance of 10% of basic pay over and above his/her current allowance. There will not be any change in pay structure if a person is transferred/promoted from a department with higher average age to a department with lower average age.

Questions below are independent of each other.

Question 1

What is the approximate percentage change in the average gross of the HR department due to transfer of a 40-year old person with basic pay of Rs. 8000 from the Marketing department?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

Directions for following three questions: Answer the following questions based on the information given below: There are 100 employees in an organization across five departments. The following table gives the department-wise distribution of average age, average basic pay and allowances. The gross pay of an employee is the sum of his/her basic pay and allowances.

There are limited numbers of employees considered for transfer/promotion across departments Whenever a person is transferred/promoted from a department of lower average age to a department of higher average age, he/she will get an additional allowance of 10% of basic pay over and above his/her current allowance. There will not be any change in pay structure if a person is transferred/promoted from a department with higher average age to a department with lower average age.

Questions below are independent of each other.

Question 2

There was a mutual transfer of an employee between Marketing and Finance departments and transfer of one employee from Marketing to HR. As a result, the average age of finance department increased by one year and that of Marketing department remained the same. What is the new average age of HR department?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

Directions for following three questions: Answer the following questions based on the information given below: There are 100 employees in an organization across five departments. The following table gives the department-wise distribution of average age, average basic pay and allowances. The gross pay of an employee is the sum of his/her basic pay and allowances.

There are limited numbers of employees considered for transfer/promotion across departments Whenever a person is transferred/promoted from a department of lower average age to a department of higher average age, he/she will get an additional allowance of 10% of basic pay over and above his/her current allowance. There will not be any change in pay structure if a person is transferred/promoted from a department with higher average age to a department with lower average age.

Questions below are independent of each other.

Question 3

If two employees (each with a basic pay of Rs. 6000) are transferred from Maintenance department to HR department and one person (with a basic pay of Rs. 8000) was transferred from Marketing department to HR department, what will be the percentage change in average basic pay of HR department?

Show Answer Explanation

CAT 2007 Data Interpretation Basics questions

Instruction for set 1:

DIRECTIONS for the following four questions:

A low-cost airline company connects ten India cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.

Question 1

What is the lowest possible fare, in rupees, from A to J?


Instruction for set 1:

DIRECTIONS for the following four questions:

A low-cost airline company connects ten India cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.

Question 2

The company plans to introduce a direct flight between A and J. The market research results indicate that all its existing passengers travelling between A and J will use this direct flight if it is priced 5% below the minimum price that they pay at present. What should the company charge approximately, in rupees, for this direct flight?


Instruction for set 1:

DIRECTIONS for the following four questions:

A low-cost airline company connects ten India cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.

Question 3

If the airports C, D and H are closed down owing to security reasons, what would be the minimum price, in rupees, to be paid by a passenger travelling from A to J?


Instruction for set 1:

DIRECTIONS for the following four questions:

A low-cost airline company connects ten India cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.

Question 4

If the prices include a margin of 10% over the total cost that the company incurs, what is the minimum cost per kilometer that the company incurs in flying from A to J?


Instruction for set 1:

DIRECTIONS for the following four questions:

A low-cost airline company connects ten India cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.

Question 5

If the prices include a margin of 15% over the total cost that the company incurs, which among the following is the distance to be covered in flying from A to J that minimizes the total cost of travel for the company?

CAT 2006 Data Interpretation Basics questions

Instruction for set 1:

In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups - PCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan's score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table.)

Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.

Question 1

How much did Dipan get in English Paper II?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups - PCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan's score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table.)

Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.

Question 2

Students who obtained Group Scores of at least 95 in every group are eligible to apply for a prize. Among those who are eligible, the student obtaining the highest Group Score in Social Science Group is awarded this prize. The prize was awarded to:

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups - PCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan's score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table.)

Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.

Question 3

Among the top ten students, how many boys scored at least 95 in at least one paper from each of the groups?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups - PCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan's score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table.)

Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.

Question 4

Each of the ten students was allowed to improve his/her score in exactly one paper of choice with the objective of maximizing his /her final score. Everyone scored 100 in the paper in which he or she chose to improve. After that, the topper among the ten students was:

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups - PCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan's score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table.)

Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.

Question 5

Had Joseph, Agni, Pritam and Tirna each obtained Group Score of 100 in the Social Science Group,then their standing in decreasing order of final score would be;

Show Answer Explanation

CAT 2005 Data Interpretation Basics questions

Instruction for set 1:

The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. and Profitable Ltd. are disguised in the table as A,B,C and D, in no particular order.

Further, it is known that:

  • In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. has the highest market share.

  • Aggressive Ltd.’s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.’s by Rs. 5 million.

Question 1

What can be said regarding the following two statements?

Statement 1: Profitable Ltd. has the lowest share in MP market.

Statement 2: Honest Ltd.’s total revenue is more than Profitable Ltd.

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. and Profitable Ltd. are disguised in the table as A,B,C and D, in no particular order.

Further, it is known that:

  • In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. has the highest market share.

  • Aggressive Ltd.’s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.’s by Rs. 5 million.

Question 2

What can be said regarding the following two statements?

Statement 1: Aggressive Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from MP.

Statement 2: Honest Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from Bihar.

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. and Profitable Ltd. are disguised in the table as A,B,C and D, in no particular order.

Further, it is known that:

  • In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. has the highest market share.

  • Aggressive Ltd.’s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.’s by Rs. 5 million.

Question 3

What can be said regarding the following two statements?

Statement 1: Honest Ltd. has the highest share in the UP market.

Statement 2: Aggressive Ltd. has the highest share in the Bihar market.

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. and Profitable Ltd. are disguised in the table as A,B,C and D, in no particular order.

Further, it is known that:

  • In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. has the highest market share.

  • Aggressive Ltd.’s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.’s by Rs. 5 million.

Question 4

If Profitable Ltd.’s lowest revenue is from UP, then which of the following is true?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 2:

The table below reports the gender, designation and age-group of the employees in an organization. It also provides information on their commitment to projects coming up in the months of January (Jan), February (Feb), March (Mar) and April (Apr), as well as their interest in attending workshops on: Business Opportunities (BO), Communication Skills (CS), and E-Governance (EG).

M=Male, F= Female; Exe=Executive, Mgr=Manager, Dir=Director; Y=Young, I=In-between, O=Old

For each workshop, exactly four employees are to be sent, of which at least two should be Females and at least one should be Young. No employee can be sent to a workshop in which he/she is not interested in. An employee cannot attend the workshop on

  • Communication Skills, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of January;

  • Business Opportunities, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of February;

  • E-governance, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of March.

Question 5

Assuming that Parul and Hari are attending the workshop on Communication Skills (CS), then which of the following employees can possibly attend the CS workshop?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 2:

The table below reports the gender, designation and age-group of the employees in an organization. It also provides information on their commitment to projects coming up in the months of January (Jan), February (Feb), March (Mar) and April (Apr), as well as their interest in attending workshops on: Business Opportunities (BO), Communication Skills (CS), and E-Governance (EG).

M=Male, F= Female; Exe=Executive, Mgr=Manager, Dir=Director; Y=Young, I=In-between, O=Old

For each workshop, exactly four employees are to be sent, of which at least two should be Females and at least one should be Young. No employee can be sent to a workshop in which he/she is not interested in. An employee cannot attend the workshop on

  • Communication Skills, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of January;

  • Business Opportunities, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of February;

  • E-governance, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of March.

Question 6

How many Executives (Exe) cannot attend more than one workshop?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 2:

The table below reports the gender, designation and age-group of the employees in an organization. It also provides information on their commitment to projects coming up in the months of January (Jan), February (Feb), March (Mar) and April (Apr), as well as their interest in attending workshops on: Business Opportunities (BO), Communication Skills (CS), and E-Governance (EG).

M=Male, F= Female; Exe=Executive, Mgr=Manager, Dir=Director; Y=Young, I=In-between, O=Old

For each workshop, exactly four employees are to be sent, of which at least two should be Females and at least one should be Young. No employee can be sent to a workshop in which he/she is not interested in. An employee cannot attend the workshop on

  • Communication Skills, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of January;

  • Business Opportunities, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of February;

  • E-governance, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of March.

Question 7

Which set of employees cannot attend any of the workshops?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 3:

The table below reports annual statistics related to rice production in select states of India for a particular year.

Question 8

Which two states account for the highest productivity of rice (tons produced per hectare of rice cultivation)?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 3:

The table below reports annual statistics related to rice production in select states of India for a particular year.

Question 9

How many states have a per capita production of rice (defined as total rice production divided by its population) greater than Gujarat?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 3:

The table below reports annual statistics related to rice production in select states of India for a particular year.

Question 10

An intensive rice producing state is defined as one whose annual rice production per million of population is at least 400,000 tons. How many states are intensive rice producing states?

Show Answer Explanation

CAT 2004 Data Interpretation Basics questions

Instruction for set 1:

Directions for the following four questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A study was conduced to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.

Question 1

Which of the following pairs of countries are most dissimilar?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

Directions for the following four questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A study was conduced to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.

Question 2

Which of the following countries is least dissimilar to India?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

Directions for the following four questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A study was conduced to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.

Question 3

Which amongst the following countries is most dissimilar to India?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

Directions for the following four questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A study was conduced to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.

Question 4

Three of the following four pairs of countries have identical levels of dissimilarity. Which pair is the odd one out?

Show Answer Explanation

CAT 2003 Data Interpretation Basics questions

Instruction for set 1:

DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The table below provides certain demographic details of 30 respondents who were part of a survey. The demographic characteristics are: gender, number of children, and age of respondents. The first number in each cell is the number of respondents in that group. The minimum and maximum age of respondents in each group is given in brackets. For example, there are five female respondents with no children and among these five, the youngest is 34 years old, while the oldest is 49.

Question 1

The percentage of respondents that fall into the 35 to 40 years age group (both inclusive) is at least

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The table below provides certain demographic details of 30 respondents who were part of a survey. The demographic characteristics are: gender, number of children, and age of respondents. The first number in each cell is the number of respondents in that group. The minimum and maximum age of respondents in each group is given in brackets. For example, there are five female respondents with no children and among these five, the youngest is 34 years old, while the oldest is 49.

Question 2

The percentage of respondents aged less than 40 years is at least

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The table below provides certain demographic details of 30 respondents who were part of a survey. The demographic characteristics are: gender, number of children, and age of respondents. The first number in each cell is the number of respondents in that group. The minimum and maximum age of respondents in each group is given in brackets. For example, there are five female respondents with no children and among these five, the youngest is 34 years old, while the oldest is 49.

Question 3

Given the information above, the percentage of respondents older than 35 can be at most

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 2:

DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Details of the top 20 MBA schools in the US as ranked by US News and World Report, 1997 are given below.

Question 4

Madhu has received admission in all schools listed above. She wishes to select the highest overall ranked school whose annual tuition fee does not exceed $23,000 and median starting salary is at least $70,000. Which school will she select?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 2:

DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Details of the top 20 MBA schools in the US as ranked by US News and World Report, 1997 are given below.

Question 5

In terms of staring salary and tuition fee, how many schools are uniformly better (higher median starting salary AND lower tuition fee) than Dartmouth College?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 2:

DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Details of the top 20 MBA schools in the US as ranked by US News and World Report, 1997 are given below.

Question 6

How many schools in the list above have single digit rankings on at least 3 of the 4 parameters (overall ranking, ranking by academics, ranking by recruiters and ranking by placement)?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 3:

DIRECTIONS for the following two questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

An industry comprises four firms (A, B, C, and D). Financial details of these firms and of the industry as a whole for a particular year are given below. Profitability of a firm is defined as profit as a percentage of sales.

Question 7

Which firm has the highest profitability?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 3:

DIRECTIONS for the following two questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

An industry comprises four firms (A, B, C, and D). Financial details of these firms and of the industry as a whole for a particular year are given below. Profitability of a firm is defined as profit as a percentage of sales.

Question 8

If firm A acquires firm B, approximately what percentage of the total market (total sales) will they corner together?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 4:

DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: In each question, there are two statements: A and B, either of which can be true or false on the basis of the information given below.

A research agency collected the following data regarding the admission process of a reputed management school in India.

Question 9

Statement A: The success rate of moving from written test to interview stage for males was worse than for females in 2003.

Statement B: The success rate of moving from written test to interview stage for females was better in 2002 than in 2003.

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 4:

DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: In each question, there are two statements: A and B, either of which can be true or false on the basis of the information given below.

A research agency collected the following data regarding the admission process of a reputed management school in India.

Question 10

Statement A: In 2002, the number of females selected for the course as a proportion of the number of females who bought application forms, was higher than the corresponding proportion for males.

Statement B: In 2002, among those called for interview, males had a greater success rate than females.

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 4:

DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: In each question, there are two statements: A and B, either of which can be true or false on the basis of the information given below.

A research agency collected the following data regarding the admission process of a reputed management school in India.

Question 11

Statement A: The percentage of absentees in the written test among females decreased from 2002 to 2003.

Statement B: The percentage of absentees in the written test among males was larger than among females in 2003.

Show Answer Explanation

CAT 2002 Data Interpretation Basics questions

Instruction for set 1:

The following table provides data on the different countries and location of their capitals. (the data may not match the actual Latitude, Longitudes) Answer the following questions on the basis of this table.

Question 1

What percentage of cities located within 10 E° and 40 E° (10° East and 40° East) lie in the Southern Hemisphere?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

The following table provides data on the different countries and location of their capitals. (the data may not match the actual Latitude, Longitudes) Answer the following questions on the basis of this table.

Question 2

The number of cities whose names begin with a consonant and are in the Northern Hemisphere in the table

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

The following table provides data on the different countries and location of their capitals. (the data may not match the actual Latitude, Longitudes) Answer the following questions on the basis of this table.

Question 3

The ratio of the number of countries whose name starts with vowels and located in the southern hemisphere, to the number of countries, the name of whose capital cities starts with a vowel in the table above is

Show Answer Explanation

CAT 2001 Data Interpretation Basics questions

Instruction for set 1:

Directions for the following four questions: Answer the questions based on the table given below concerning the busiest 20 international airports in the world.

Question 1

How many international airports of type ‘A’ account for more than 40 million passengers?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

Directions for the following four questions: Answer the questions based on the table given below concerning the busiest 20 international airports in the world.

Question 2

What percentage of top ten busiest airports is in the United States of America?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

Directions for the following four questions: Answer the questions based on the table given below concerning the busiest 20 international airports in the world.

Question 3

Of the five busiest airports, roughly, what percentage of passengers in handled by Heathrow Airport?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

Directions for the following four questions: Answer the questions based on the table given below concerning the busiest 20 international airports in the world.

Question 4

How many international airports not located in the USA handle more than 30 million passengers?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 2:

Directions for the following four questions: Answer the questions based on the table given below.

The following table describes garments manufactured based upon the color and size for each lay. There are four sizes: M – medium, L – large, XL – extra large and XXL – extra extra large. There are three colors: yellow, red and white.

Question 5

How many lays are used to produce yellow fabrics?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 2:

Directions for the following four questions: Answer the questions based on the table given below.

The following table describes garments manufactured based upon the color and size for each lay. There are four sizes: M – medium, L – large, XL – extra large and XXL – extra extra large. There are three colors: yellow, red and white.

Question 6

How many lays are used to produce XL fabrics?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 2:

Directions for the following four questions: Answer the questions based on the table given below.

The following table describes garments manufactured based upon the color and size for each lay. There are four sizes: M – medium, L – large, XL – extra large and XXL – extra extra large. There are three colors: yellow, red and white.

Question 7

How many lays are used to produce XL yellow or XL white fabrics?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 2:

Directions for the following four questions: Answer the questions based on the table given below.

The following table describes garments manufactured based upon the color and size for each lay. There are four sizes: M – medium, L – large, XL – extra large and XXL – extra extra large. There are three colors: yellow, red and white.

Question 8

How many varieties of fabrics, which exceed the order, have been produced?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 3:

Directions for the following two questions: Answer the questions based on the following information.

The batting average (BA) of a Test batsman is computed from runs scored and innings played — completed innings and incomplete innings (not out) in the following manner:

$$r_1 =$$ Number of runs scored in completed innings

$$n_1 =$$ Number of completed innings

$$r_2 =$$ Number of runs scored in incomplete innings

$$n_2 =$$ Number of incomplete innings

$$BA=\frac{r_1+r_2}{n_1}$$

To better assess a batsman’s accomplishments, the ICC is considering two other measures $$MBA_1$$ and $$MBA_2$$ defined as follows:

$$MBA_1 = \frac{r_1}{n_1} + \frac{n_2}{n_1}*max[0,(\frac{r_2}{n_2}-\frac{r_1}{n_1})]$$

$$MBA_2 = \frac{r_1 + r_2}{n_1 + n_2}$$

Question 9

Based on the above information which of the following is true?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 3:

Directions for the following two questions: Answer the questions based on the following information.

The batting average (BA) of a Test batsman is computed from runs scored and innings played — completed innings and incomplete innings (not out) in the following manner:

$$r_1 =$$ Number of runs scored in completed innings

$$n_1 =$$ Number of completed innings

$$r_2 =$$ Number of runs scored in incomplete innings

$$n_2 =$$ Number of incomplete innings

$$BA=\frac{r_1+r_2}{n_1}$$

To better assess a batsman’s accomplishments, the ICC is considering two other measures $$MBA_1$$ and $$MBA_2$$ defined as follows:

$$MBA_1 = \frac{r_1}{n_1} + \frac{n_2}{n_1}*max[0,(\frac{r_2}{n_2}-\frac{r_1}{n_1})]$$

$$MBA_2 = \frac{r_1 + r_2}{n_1 + n_2}$$

Question 10

An experienced cricketer with no incomplete innings has BA of 50. The next time he bats, the innings is incomplete and he scores 45 runs. It can be inferred that

Show Answer Explanation

CAT 2000 Data Interpretation Basics questions

Instruction for set 1:

Directions for the next 5 questions: Answer these questions based on the data provided in the table below: Factory Sector by Type of Ownership. All figures in the table are in percent of the total for the corresponding column.

Question 1

Suppose the average employment level is 60 per factory. The average employment in wholly private” factories is approximately:

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

Directions for the next 5 questions: Answer these questions based on the data provided in the table below: Factory Sector by Type of Ownership. All figures in the table are in percent of the total for the corresponding column.

Question 2

Among the firms in different sectors, value added per employee is highest in:

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

Directions for the next 5 questions: Answer these questions based on the data provided in the table below: Factory Sector by Type of Ownership. All figures in the table are in percent of the total for the corresponding column.

Question 3

Capital productivity is defined as the gross output value per rupee of fixed capital. The three sectors with the higher capital productivity, arranged in descending order are:

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

Directions for the next 5 questions: Answer these questions based on the data provided in the table below: Factory Sector by Type of Ownership. All figures in the table are in percent of the total for the corresponding column.

Question 4

A sector is considered ‘pareto efficient’ if its value added per employee and its value added per rupee of fixed capital is higher than those of all other sectors. Based on the table data, the pareto efficient sector is:

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

Directions for the next 5 questions: Answer these questions based on the data provided in the table below: Factory Sector by Type of Ownership. All figures in the table are in percent of the total for the corresponding column.

Question 5

The total value added in all sectors is estimated at Rs. 14,000 crores. Suppose that the number of firms in the joint sector is 2700. The average value added per factory, in Rs. crores, in the central govt. is:

Show Answer Explanation

CAT 1999 Data Interpretation Basics questions

Instruction for set 1:

These questions are based on the table below presenting data on percentage population covered by drinking water and sanitation facilities in selected Asian countries.

Country A is said to dominate B or A > B if A has higher percentage in total coverage for both drinking water and sanitation facilities, and, B is said to be dominated by A, or B < A. A country is said to be on the coverage frontier if no other country dominates it. Similarly, a country is not on the coverage frontier if it is dominated by at least one other country. 

Question 1

What are the countries on the coverage frontier?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

These questions are based on the table below presenting data on percentage population covered by drinking water and sanitation facilities in selected Asian countries.

Country A is said to dominate B or A > B if A has higher percentage in total coverage for both drinking water and sanitation facilities, and, B is said to be dominated by A, or B < A. A country is said to be on the coverage frontier if no other country dominates it. Similarly, a country is not on the coverage frontier if it is dominated by at least one other country. 

Question 2

Which of the following statements are true?

A. India > Pakistan and India > Indonesia

B. India > China and India > Nepal

C. Sri Lanka > China

D. China > Nepal

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

These questions are based on the table below presenting data on percentage population covered by drinking water and sanitation facilities in selected Asian countries.

Country A is said to dominate B or A > B if A has higher percentage in total coverage for both drinking water and sanitation facilities, and, B is said to be dominated by A, or B < A. A country is said to be on the coverage frontier if no other country dominates it. Similarly, a country is not on the coverage frontier if it is dominated by at least one other country. 

Question 3

Using only the data presented under Sanitation facilities columns, it can be concluded that rural population in India, as a percentage of its total population is approximately

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

These questions are based on the table below presenting data on percentage population covered by drinking water and sanitation facilities in selected Asian countries.

Country A is said to dominate B or A > B if A has higher percentage in total coverage for both drinking water and sanitation facilities, and, B is said to be dominated by A, or B < A. A country is said to be on the coverage frontier if no other country dominates it. Similarly, a country is not on the coverage frontier if it is dominated by at least one other country. 

Question 4

Again, using only the data presented under Sanitation facilities columns, sequence China, Indonesia and Philippines in ascending order of rural population as a percentage of their respective total populations. The correct order is:

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

These questions are based on the table below presenting data on percentage population covered by drinking water and sanitation facilities in selected Asian countries.

Country A is said to dominate B or A > B if A has higher percentage in total coverage for both drinking water and sanitation facilities, and, B is said to be dominated by A, or B < A. A country is said to be on the coverage frontier if no other country dominates it. Similarly, a country is not on the coverage frontier if it is dominated by at least one other country. 

Question 5

India is not on the coverage frontier because

A. it is lower than Bangladesh in terms of coverage of drinking water facilities.

B. it is lower than Sri Lanka in terms of coverage of sanitation facilities.

C. it is lower than Pakistan in terms of coverage of sanitation facilities.

D. it is dominated by Indonesia.

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

These questions are based on the table below presenting data on percentage population covered by drinking water and sanitation facilities in selected Asian countries.

Country A is said to dominate B or A > B if A has higher percentage in total coverage for both drinking water and sanitation facilities, and, B is said to be dominated by A, or B < A. A country is said to be on the coverage frontier if no other country dominates it. Similarly, a country is not on the coverage frontier if it is dominated by at least one other country. 

Question 6

These relate to the above table with the additional provison that the gap between the population coverages of ‘sanitation facilities’ and ‘drinking water facilities’ is a measure of disparity in coverage.

The country with the most disparity in coverage of rural sector is

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

These questions are based on the table below presenting data on percentage population covered by drinking water and sanitation facilities in selected Asian countries.

Country A is said to dominate B or A > B if A has higher percentage in total coverage for both drinking water and sanitation facilities, and, B is said to be dominated by A, or B < A. A country is said to be on the coverage frontier if no other country dominates it. Similarly, a country is not on the coverage frontier if it is dominated by at least one other country. 

Question 7

These relate to the above table with the additional provison that the gap between the population coverages of ‘sanitation facilities’ and ‘drinking water facilities’ is a measure of disparity in coverage.

The country with the least disparity in coverage of urban sector is

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 2: The following table shows the top 20 busiest airports (in terms of passengers) in India. The Passengers column gives the number of passengers handled by each airport in a year.

Question 8

How many airports of type ‘1’ handle more than 35 lakh passengers each?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 2: The following table shows the top 20 busiest airports (in terms of passengers) in India. The Passengers column gives the number of passengers handled by each airport in a year.

Question 9

How many airports outside of AP handle more than 40 lakh passengers each?

Show Answer Explanation

CAT 1998 Data Interpretation Basics questions

Instruction for set 1:

The following table gives the quantities of apples (in tonnes) arriving at New Delhi market from various states in a particular year. The month in which demand was more than supply, the additional demand was met by the stock from cold storage. 

Question 1

What was the maximum percentage of apples supplied by any state in any of the months?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

The following table gives the quantities of apples (in tonnes) arriving at New Delhi market from various states in a particular year. The month in which demand was more than supply, the additional demand was met by the stock from cold storage. 

Question 2

Which state supplied the maximum number of apples?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

The following table gives the quantities of apples (in tonnes) arriving at New Delhi market from various states in a particular year. The month in which demand was more than supply, the additional demand was met by the stock from cold storage. 

Question 3

Which state supplied the highest percentage of apples from the total apples supplied?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

The following table gives the quantities of apples (in tonnes) arriving at New Delhi market from various states in a particular year. The month in which demand was more than supply, the additional demand was met by the stock from cold storage. 

Question 4

In which of the following periods was the supply greater than or equal to the demand?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

The following table gives the quantities of apples (in tonnes) arriving at New Delhi market from various states in a particular year. The month in which demand was more than supply, the additional demand was met by the stock from cold storage. 

Question 5

If the yield per tree was 40 kg, then from how many trees were the apples supplied to New Delhi (in millions) during the year?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

The following table gives the quantities of apples (in tonnes) arriving at New Delhi market from various states in a particular year. The month in which demand was more than supply, the additional demand was met by the stock from cold storage. 

Question 6

Using the data in the earlier question, if there were 250 trees per hectare, then how many hectares of land was used?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 2:

 Answer the questions based on the following information. Production pattern for number of units (in cubic feet) per day.

The finished goods are to be transported to the market by a truck having a capacity of 2000 cubic feet. Any finished goods (ready at the end of the day) retained overnight at the factory will incur a storage cost of Rs 5 per cubic foot for each night of storage. The hiring cost for the truck is Rs 1000 per day.

Question 7

If all the units should be sent to the market, then on which days should the trucks be hired to minimize the cost?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 2:

 Answer the questions based on the following information. Production pattern for number of units (in cubic feet) per day.

The finished goods are to be transported to the market by a truck having a capacity of 2000 cubic feet. Any finished goods (ready at the end of the day) retained overnight at the factory will incur a storage cost of Rs 5 per cubic foot for each night of storage. The hiring cost for the truck is Rs 1000 per day.

Question 8

If the storage cost is reduced to Re 0.80 per cubic feet per day, then on which day(s), should the truck be hired?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 3:

Answer the questions based on the following information.

Krishna distributed 10-acre land to Gopal and Ram who paid him the total amount in the ratio 2 : 3. Gopal invested a further Rs. 2 lakh in the land and planted coconut and lemon trees in the ratio 5 : 1 on equal areas of land. There were a total of 100 lemon trees. The cost of one coconut was Rs. 5. The crop took 7 years to mature and when the crop was reaped in 1997, the total revenue generated was 25% of the total amount put in by Gopal and Ram together. The revenue generated from the coconut and lemon trees was in the ratio 3 : 2 and it was shared equally by Gopal and Ram as the initial amount spent by them were equal.

Question 9

What was the total output of coconuts?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 3:

Answer the questions based on the following information.

Krishna distributed 10-acre land to Gopal and Ram who paid him the total amount in the ratio 2 : 3. Gopal invested a further Rs. 2 lakh in the land and planted coconut and lemon trees in the ratio 5 : 1 on equal areas of land. There were a total of 100 lemon trees. The cost of one coconut was Rs. 5. The crop took 7 years to mature and when the crop was reaped in 1997, the total revenue generated was 25% of the total amount put in by Gopal and Ram together. The revenue generated from the coconut and lemon trees was in the ratio 3 : 2 and it was shared equally by Gopal and Ram as the initial amount spent by them were equal.

Question 10

What was the value of output per acre of lemon trees planted?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 3:

Answer the questions based on the following information.

Krishna distributed 10-acre land to Gopal and Ram who paid him the total amount in the ratio 2 : 3. Gopal invested a further Rs. 2 lakh in the land and planted coconut and lemon trees in the ratio 5 : 1 on equal areas of land. There were a total of 100 lemon trees. The cost of one coconut was Rs. 5. The crop took 7 years to mature and when the crop was reaped in 1997, the total revenue generated was 25% of the total amount put in by Gopal and Ram together. The revenue generated from the coconut and lemon trees was in the ratio 3 : 2 and it was shared equally by Gopal and Ram as the initial amount spent by them were equal.

Question 11

What was the amount received by Gopal in 1997?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 3:

Answer the questions based on the following information.

Krishna distributed 10-acre land to Gopal and Ram who paid him the total amount in the ratio 2 : 3. Gopal invested a further Rs. 2 lakh in the land and planted coconut and lemon trees in the ratio 5 : 1 on equal areas of land. There were a total of 100 lemon trees. The cost of one coconut was Rs. 5. The crop took 7 years to mature and when the crop was reaped in 1997, the total revenue generated was 25% of the total amount put in by Gopal and Ram together. The revenue generated from the coconut and lemon trees was in the ratio 3 : 2 and it was shared equally by Gopal and Ram as the initial amount spent by them were equal.

Question 12

What was the value of output per tree for coconuts?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 3:

Answer the questions based on the following information.

Krishna distributed 10-acre land to Gopal and Ram who paid him the total amount in the ratio 2 : 3. Gopal invested a further Rs. 2 lakh in the land and planted coconut and lemon trees in the ratio 5 : 1 on equal areas of land. There were a total of 100 lemon trees. The cost of one coconut was Rs. 5. The crop took 7 years to mature and when the crop was reaped in 1997, the total revenue generated was 25% of the total amount put in by Gopal and Ram together. The revenue generated from the coconut and lemon trees was in the ratio 3 : 2 and it was shared equally by Gopal and Ram as the initial amount spent by them were equal.

Question 13

What was the ratio of yields per acre of land for coconuts and lemons (in terms of number of lemons and coconuts)?

Show Answer Explanation

CAT 1996 Data Interpretation Basics questions

Instruction for set 1:

 Answer the questions based on the following information, which gives data about certain coffee producers in India.


 

Question 1

What is the maximum production capacity (in '000 tonnes) of Lipton for coffee?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

 Answer the questions based on the following information, which gives data about certain coffee producers in India.


 

Question 2

Which company out of the four companies mentioned above has the maximum unutilised capacity (in '000 tonnes)?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

 Answer the questions based on the following information, which gives data about certain coffee producers in India.


 

Question 3

What is the approximate total production capacity (in ‘000 tonnes) for coffee in India?

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

 Answer the questions based on the following information, which gives data about certain coffee producers in India.


 

Question 4

Among the four brands, the highest price for coffee per kilogram is for

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

 Answer the questions based on the following information, which gives data about certain coffee producers in India.


 

Question 5

What percent of the total market share (by sales value) is controlled by ‘others’?

Show Answer Explanation

CAT 1991 Data Interpretation Basics questions

Instruction for set 1:

Use the following information: Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1000 widgets before sending them to the buyer.
In case he decides to test, he has two options:
a) Use test I ;
b) Use test II.

Test I cost Rs. 2 per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It sends 20% of the bad ones to the buyer as good. Test II costs Rs. 3 per widget. It brings out all the bad ones. A defective widget identified before sending can be corrected at a cost of Rs. 25 per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyer's end and penalty of Rs. 50 per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash.

Question 1

Prakash should not test if the number of bad widgets in the lot is:

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

Use the following information: Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1000 widgets before sending them to the buyer.
In case he decides to test, he has two options:
a) Use test I ;
b) Use test II.

Test I cost Rs. 2 per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It sends 20% of the bad ones to the buyer as good. Test II costs Rs. 3 per widget. It brings out all the bad ones. A defective widget identified before sending can be corrected at a cost of Rs. 25 per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyer's end and penalty of Rs. 50 per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash.

Question 2

If there are 120 defective widgets in the lot, Prakash:

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

Use the following information: Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1000 widgets before sending them to the buyer.
In case he decides to test, he has two options:
a) Use test I ;
b) Use test II.

Test I cost Rs. 2 per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It sends 20% of the bad ones to the buyer as good. Test II costs Rs. 3 per widget. It brings out all the bad ones. A defective widget identified before sending can be corrected at a cost of Rs. 25 per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyer's end and penalty of Rs. 50 per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash.

Question 3

If the number of defective widgets in the lot is between 200 and 400, Prakash:

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

Use the following information: Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1000 widgets before sending them to the buyer.
In case he decides to test, he has two options:
a) Use test I ;
b) Use test II.

Test I cost Rs. 2 per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It sends 20% of the bad ones to the buyer as good. Test II costs Rs. 3 per widget. It brings out all the bad ones. A defective widget identified before sending can be corrected at a cost of Rs. 25 per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyer's end and penalty of Rs. 50 per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash.

Question 4

If Prakash is told that the lot has 160 defective widgets, he should:

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 1:

Use the following information: Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1000 widgets before sending them to the buyer.
In case he decides to test, he has two options:
a) Use test I ;
b) Use test II.

Test I cost Rs. 2 per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It sends 20% of the bad ones to the buyer as good. Test II costs Rs. 3 per widget. It brings out all the bad ones. A defective widget identified before sending can be corrected at a cost of Rs. 25 per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyer's end and penalty of Rs. 50 per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash.

Question 5

If there are 200 defective widgets in the lot, Prakash:

Show Answer Explanation

Instruction for set 2:  Read the following information and answer the questions that follows: Ghosh Babu deposited a certain sum of money in a bank in 1986. The bank calculated interest on the principal at 10 percent simple interest, and credited it to the account once a year. After the 1st year, Ghosh Babu withdrew the entire interest and 20% of the initial amount. After the 2nd year, he withdrew the interest and 50% of the remaining amount. After the 3rd year, he withdrew the interest and 50% of the remaining amount. Finally after the 4th year, Ghosh Babu closed the account and collected the entire balance of Rs. 11,000.

Question 6

The initial amount in rupees, deposited by Ghosh Babu was:

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Instruction for set 2:  Read the following information and answer the questions that follows: Ghosh Babu deposited a certain sum of money in a bank in 1986. The bank calculated interest on the principal at 10 percent simple interest, and credited it to the account once a year. After the 1st year, Ghosh Babu withdrew the entire interest and 20% of the initial amount. After the 2nd year, he withdrew the interest and 50% of the remaining amount. After the 3rd year, he withdrew the interest and 50% of the remaining amount. Finally after the 4th year, Ghosh Babu closed the account and collected the entire balance of Rs. 11,000.

Question 7

The year, at the end of which, Ghosh Babu withdrew the smallest amount was:

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Instruction for set 2:  Read the following information and answer the questions that follows: Ghosh Babu deposited a certain sum of money in a bank in 1986. The bank calculated interest on the principal at 10 percent simple interest, and credited it to the account once a year. After the 1st year, Ghosh Babu withdrew the entire interest and 20% of the initial amount. After the 2nd year, he withdrew the interest and 50% of the remaining amount. After the 3rd year, he withdrew the interest and 50% of the remaining amount. Finally after the 4th year, Ghosh Babu closed the account and collected the entire balance of Rs. 11,000.

Question 8

The year, at the end of which, Ghosh Babu collected the maximum interest was:

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Instruction for set 2:  Read the following information and answer the questions that follows: Ghosh Babu deposited a certain sum of money in a bank in 1986. The bank calculated interest on the principal at 10 percent simple interest, and credited it to the account once a year. After the 1st year, Ghosh Babu withdrew the entire interest and 20% of the initial amount. After the 2nd year, he withdrew the interest and 50% of the remaining amount. After the 3rd year, he withdrew the interest and 50% of the remaining amount. Finally after the 4th year, Ghosh Babu closed the account and collected the entire balance of Rs. 11,000.

Question 9

The year, at the end of which, Ghosh Babu withdrew the maximum amount was:

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Instruction for set 2:  Read the following information and answer the questions that follows: Ghosh Babu deposited a certain sum of money in a bank in 1986. The bank calculated interest on the principal at 10 percent simple interest, and credited it to the account once a year. After the 1st year, Ghosh Babu withdrew the entire interest and 20% of the initial amount. After the 2nd year, he withdrew the interest and 50% of the remaining amount. After the 3rd year, he withdrew the interest and 50% of the remaining amount. Finally after the 4th year, Ghosh Babu closed the account and collected the entire balance of Rs. 11,000.

Question 10

The total interest, in rupees, collected by Ghosh Babu was:

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