How is the CAT score is calculated in 2024?

Cracku CAT score calculator simulates the same marking scheme of CAT. Every year more than 65,000 students has been using our calculator since years. This data helps us to make an accurate prediction of raw scores, scaled scores and expected percentiles.

Can the CAT Score Calculator 2024 predict my actual CAT score?

Yes, our Cracku CAT score calculator can actually predict your expected score. Our tool has been consistently making accurate predictions with a veryminimal deviation from the actual result.

What is my expected CAT percentile?

Cracku predictor will give you the expected percentile based on your score and the slot when you upload the response sheet. It will be updated once after more response sheets are uploaded.

How do I download CAT response sheet as HTML on my phone?

Access the CAT 2024 official website and log in using your provided credentials to view the Answer Key and Response Sheet. Download these documents for future reference. Calculate your score manually or use the Cracku CAT 2024 Score Calculator by pasting the URL to get your result, expected percentile, and overall rank instantly.

Are there any free CAT Score Calculators available?

Yes. Cracku’s CAT Score Calculator is completely free tool which helps to check your score and topper list.

What is the CAT Response Sheet?

The Indian Institutes of Management release the CAT Response Sheet every year after completing the CAT exam. It contains the recorded responses of candidates to the questions asked in the exam. This sheet allows candidates to review and compare their answers to the officially provided correct answers. It is an essential tool for candidates to evaluate their test and helps them plan for the next step towards an MBA.

Is there any restriction on the number of objections one can raise against the CAT 2024 Answer Keys?

No, there is no restriction on the number of objections a candidate can raise against the official CAT 2024 Answer Keys. Candidates can raise multiple objections but should ensure accuracy before submission for MBA Entrance Preparation and CAT Exam Review. And if interested, you should submit ₹1200 for each Objection.

Which slot was difficult in CAT 2024?

Slot-3 is the toughest of all the three. VARC and DILR are of same level across all the slots. Quant was the toughest. Questions are of Moderate difficulty with trickier and lengthy questions.

Can I access the CAT 2024 Response Sheet on a mobile device?

You can access the CAT 2024 Response Sheet via the official CAT 2024 website and download them on mobile devices.

What are the features of Cracku's CAT Score Calculator used for?

Cracku’s CAT score calculator gives expected score and percentile, All-India overall rank, section-wise rank, number of correct responses andnumber of incorrect responses.

CAT Score Calculator 2024, Get Predicted CAT Percentile

CAT 2024 Analysis by Cracku

CAT 2024 Toppers List Analysis

Based on the response sheets received for CAT 2024, we have compiled statistics about the scores in each slot. These statistics will help us understand the general trends of the difficultly level of each slot across. In total we got 85617 responses, of which 29760 are for Slot 1, 28339 are for Slot 2, 27518 are for Slot 3.

For each section we have compiled the following stats: Mean, Median and Maximum across all the slots. The Mean and Median serve as proxy measurements for the difficulty level of that particular slot.

We have also plotted the score vs percentile graphs based on the responses that we have received till now for all the slots. In the plot, the slots which are below the other slots are more easy. i.e. for a given raw score, that percentile will be higher for the slots which are on the top

VARC Analysis

	Slot 1	Slot 2	Slot 3
Mean	14.29	14.35	12.81
Median	13.0	13.0	11.0
Max Score	68.0	61.0	60.0
Total Responses	29760	28339	27518

LRDI Analysis

	Slot 1	Slot 2	Slot 3
Mean	17.37	13.09	11.63
Median	17.0	12.0	11.0
Max Score	66.0	66.0	63.0
Total Responses	29760	28339	27518

Quants Analysis

	Slot 1	Slot 2	Slot 3
Mean	9.63	8.05	11.26
Median	8.0	6.0	10.0
Max Score	60.0	60.0	63.0
Total Responses	29760	28339	27518

Section	Easy	Medium	Hard
VARC
DILR
QA

Section	Easy	Medium	Hard
VARC
DILR
QA

Section	Easy	Medium	Hard
VARC
DILR
QA

Question wise analysis

Q. No.	Question	#Correct	#Incorrect	#Skipped	Difficulty
1	Q.1 Five jumbled up sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5), related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence and key in the number of that sentence as your answer. 1. Animals have an interest in fulfilling their basic needs, but also in avoiding suffering, and thus we ought to extend moral consideration. 2. Singer viewed himself as a utilitarian, and presents a direct moral theory concerning animal rights, in contrast to indirect positions, such as welfarist views. 3. He argued for extending moral consideration to animals because, similar to humans, animals have certain significant interests. 4. The event that publicly announced animal rights as a legitimate issue within contemporary philosophy was Peter Singer’s Animal Liberation text in 1975. 5. As such, we ought to view their interests alongside and equal to human interests, which results in humans having direct moral duties towards animals.	28%	60%	12%	Medium
2	Q.2 Which one of the following options does NOT represent the characteristics of the western barred bandicoot?	20%	40%	40%	Hard
3	Q.3 According to the text, the western barred bandicoots now have a flattering name because they have	49%	18%	33%	Easy
4	Q.4 Which one of the following statements provides a gist of this passage?	41%	17%	43%	Easy
5	Q.5 The text uses the word ‘ exclosures ’ because Wild Deserts has adopted a measure of	37%	23%	40%	Medium
6	Q.6 The most recent revival in interest in the crafts is a result of the emergence of all of the following EXCEPT:	30%	29%	41%	Medium
7	Q.7 We can infer from the passage that medieval crafts guilds resembled mass production in that both	15%	41%	43%	Hard
8	Q.8 Which one of the following statements is NOT inconsistent with the views stated in the passage?	20%	33%	47%	Medium
9	Q.9 The author questions the ability of crafts to create substantial employment opportunities presently because	22%	36%	42%	Medium
10	Q.10 The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage. Scientific research shows that many animals are very intelligent and have sensory and motor abilities that dwarf ours. Dogs are able to detect diseases such as cancer and diabetes and warn humans of impending heart attacks and strokes. Elephants, whales, hippopotamuses, giraffes, and alligators use low-frequency sounds to communicate over long distances, often miles. Many animals also display wide-ranging emotions, including joy, happiness, empathy, compassion, grief, and even resentment and embarrassment. It’s not surprising that animals share many emotions with us because we also share brain structures, located in the limbic system, that are the seat of our emotions.	57%	26%	17%	Easy
11	Q.11 The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage. Certain codes may, of course, be so widely distributed in a specific language community or culture, and be learned at so early an age, that they appear not to be constructed – the effect of an articulation between sign and referent – but to be ‘naturally’ given. Simple visual signs appear to have achieved a ‘near-universality’ in this sense: though evidence remains that even apparently ‘natural’ visual codes are culture specific. However, this does not mean that no codes have intervened; rather, that the codes have been profoundly naturalized. The operation of naturalized codes reveals not the transparency and ‘naturalness’ of language but the depth, the habituation and the near-universality of the codes in use. They produce apparently ‘natural’ recognitions. This has the (ideological) effect of concealing the practices of coding which are present.	14%	28%	58%	Hard
12	Q.12 There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit. Sentence: Comprehending a wide range of emotions, Renaissance music nevertheless portrayed all emotions in a balanced and moderate fashion. Paragraph: A volume of translated Italian madrigals were published in London during the year of 1588. This sudden public interest facilitated a surge of English Madrigal writing as well as a spurt of other secular music writing and publication. ___(1)___. This music boom lasted for thirty years and was as much a golden age of music as British literature was with Shakespeare and Queen Elizabeth I. ___(2)___. The rebirth in both literature and music originated in Italy and migrated to England; the English madrigal became more humorous and lighter in England as compared to Italy. Renaissance music was mostly polyphonic in texture. ___(3)___. Extreme use of and contrasts in dynamics, rhythm, and tone colour do not occur. ___(4)___. The rhythms in Renaissance music tend to have a smooth, soft flow instead of a sharp, well-defined pulse of accents.	34%	31%	35%	Medium
13	Q.13 Five jumbled up sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5), related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence and key in the number of that sentence as your answer. 1. Urbanites also have more and better options for getting around: Uber is ubiquitous; easy-to-rent dockless bicycles are spreading; battery-powered scooters will be next. 2. When more people use buses or trains the service usually improves because public-transport agencies run more buses and trains. 3. Worsening services on public transport, terrorist attacks in some urban metros and a rise in fares have been blamed for this trend. 4. It seems more likely that public transport is being squeezed structurally as people’s need to travel is diminishing as a result of smartphones, video-conferencing, online shopping and so on. 5. There has been a puzzling decline in the use of urban public transport in many countries in the west, despite the growth in urban populations and rising employment.	36%	50%	14%	Medium
14	Q.14 There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit. Sentence: Understanding central Asia’s role helps developments make more sense not only across Asia but in Europe, the Americas and Africa. Paragraph: The nations of the Silk Roads are sometimes called ‘developing countries’, but they are actually some of the world’s most highly developed countries, the very crossroads of civilization, in advanced states of disrepair. ___(1)___. These countries lie at the centre of global affairs: they have since the beginning of history. Running across the spine of Asia, they form a web of connections fanning out in every direction, routes along which pilgrims and warriors, nomads and merchants have travelled, goods and produce have been bought and sold, and ideas exchanged, adapted and refined. ___(2)___ .They have carried not only prosperity, but also death and violence, disease and disaster. ___(3)___. The Silk Roads are the world’s central nervous system, connecting otherwise far-flung peoples and places…. ___(4)___. It allows us to see patterns and links, causes and effects that remain invisible if one looks only at Europe, or North America.	43%	27%	30%	Easy
15	Q.15 “Netflix had begun editing old episodes of Stranger Things to retroactively improve their visual effects.” What is the purpose of this example used in the passage?	9%	51%	40%	Hard
16	Q.16 Which of the following statements is suggested by the sentence “Back then, at least, cinema was defined by its ephemerality: the sense that a film was as good as gone once it left your local cinema”?	20%	34%	46%	Medium
17	Q.17 Which one of the following statements about art best captures the arguments made in the passage?	24%	18%	58%	Medium
18	Q.18 Which one of the following statements, if true, would best invalidate the main argument of the passage?	25%	25%	50%	Medium
19	Q.19 There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit. Sentence: The brain isn’t organized the way you might set up your home office or bathroom medicine cabinet. Paragraph: ___(1)___. You can’t just put things anywhere you want to. The evolved architecture of the brain is haphazard and disjointed, and incorporates multiple systems, each of which has a mind of its own. ___(2)___. Evolution doesn’tdesignthings and it doesn’t build systems—itsettles onsystems that, historically, conveyed a survival benefit. There is no overarching, grand planner engineering the systems so that they work harmoniously together. ___(3)___. The brain is more like a big, old house with piecemeal renovations done on every floor, and less like new construction. ___(4)___.	49%	31%	20%	Easy
20	Q.20 In the first paragraph the author is making the point that economists like Becker	34%	11%	55%	Medium
21	Q.21 The author critiques Schiller’s approach to behavioural economics for	10%	25%	65%	Hard
22	Q.22 “Times have changed for the once almighty discipline.” We can infer from this statement and the associated paragraph that the author is being	22%	17%	61%	Medium
23	Q.23 We can infer from the passage that the term '‘homo economicus” refers to someone who	17%	23%	59%	Medium
24	Q.24 The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage. Cartographers design and create maps to communicate information about phenomena located somewhere on our planet. In the past, cartographers did not worry too much about who was going to read their maps. Although some simple “usability” research was done—like comparing whether circle or bar symbols worked best—cartographers knew how to make maps. This has changed now, however, due to all kinds of societal and technological developments. Today, map readers are more demanding—mostly because of the tools they use to read maps. Cartographers, who are also influenced by these trends, are now more interested in seeing if their products are efficient, effective, and appreciated.	28%	49%	23%	Medium
1	Q.1 How many rounds were there in the tournament?	29%	28%	43%	Medium
2	Q.2 What is the number of the team that played Team 1 in Round 5?	24%	29%	47%	Medium
3	Q.3 Which team among the teams numbered 2, 3, 4, and 5 was not part of the same group?	20%	7%	73%	Medium
4	Q.4 What is the number of the team that played Team 1 in Round 7?	17%	30%	53%	Hard
5	Q.5 What is the number of the team that played Team 6 in Round 3?	16%	30%	54%	Hard
6	Q.6 How many countries in Asia were visited by at least one of Dheeraj, Samantha and Nitesh?	31%	42%	28%	Medium
7	Q.7 How many countries in Europe were visited only by Nitesh?	9%	60%	31%	Hard
8	Q.8 How many countries in the ROW were visited by both Nitesh and Samantha?	20%	48%	32%	Hard
9	Q.9 How many countries in Europe were visited by exactly one of Dheeraj, Samantha and Nitesh?	7%	16%	77%	Hard
10	Q.10 What was the total number of stars received by D?	64%	17%	18%	Easy
11	Q.11 What was the number of stars received by D from Y?	64%	11%	24%	Easy
12	Q.12 How many surfers distributed their stars among exactly 2 bloggers?	62%	20%	18%	Easy
13	Q.13 Which of the following can be determined with certainty? I. The number of stars received by C from M II. The number of stars received by D from O	36%	31%	33%	Medium
14	Q.14 If both of them run staid campaigns attacking the other, then what percentage of students will vote in the election?	11%	7%	82%	Medium
15	Q.15 What is the minimum percentage of students who will vote in the election?	10%	6%	84%	Medium
16	Q.16 If Amiya runs a campaign focusing on issues, then what is the maximum percentage of votes that she can get?	7%	7%	86%	Hard
17	Q.17 If Ramya runs a campaign attacking Amiya, then what is the minimum percentage of votes that she is guaranteed to get?	8%	5%	87%	Hard
18	Q.18 What is the maximum possible voting margin with which one of the candidates can win?	5%	5%	90%	Hard
19	Q.19 Daily Share Price Variability (SPV) is defined as (Day’s high price - Day’s low price) / (Average of the opening and closing prices during the day). Which among the shares A, C, D and F had the highest SPV on that day?	60%	19%	21%	Easy
20	Q.20 Daily Share Price Variability (SPV) is defined as (Day’s high price - Day’s low price) / (Average of the opening and closing prices during the day). How many shares had an SPV greater than 0.5 on that day?	44%	38%	18%	Medium
21	Q.21 Daily loss for a share is defined as (Opening price – Closing price) / (Opening price). Which among the shares A, B, F and G had the highest daily loss on that day?	46%	30%	24%	Easy
22	Q.22 What would have been the percentage wealth gain for a trader, who bought equal numbers of all bullish shares at opening price and sold them at their day’s high?	42%	15%	43%	Easy
1	Q.1 Renu would take 15 days working 4 hours per day to complete a certain task whereas Seema would take 8 days working 5 hours per day to complete the same task. They decide to work together to complete this task. Seema agrees to work for double the number of hours per day as Renu, while Renu agrees to work for double the number of days as Seema. If Renu works 2 hours per day, then the number of days Seema will work, is	17%	46%	37%	Hard
2	Q.2	29%	8%	63%	Medium
3	Q.3 An amount of Rs 10000 is deposited in bank A for a certain number of years at a simple interest of 5% per annum. On maturity, the total amount received is deposited in bank B for another 5 years at a simple interest of 6% per annum. If the interests received from bank A and bank B are in the ratio 10 : 13, then the investment period, in years, in bank A is	44%	18%	38%	Easy
4	Q.4	4%	12%	85%	Hard
5	Q.5 A fruit seller has a total of 187 fruits consisting of apples, mangoes and oranges. The number of apples and mangoes are in the ratio 5 : 2. After she sells 75 apples, 26 mangoes and half of the oranges, the ratio of number of unsold apples to number of unsold oranges becomes 3 : 2. The total number of unsold fruits is	16%	37%	48%	Hard
6	Q.6 ABCD is a rectangle with sides AB = 56 cm and BC = 45 cm, and E is the midpoint of side CD. Then, the length, in cm, of radius of incircle of ∆ADE is	17%	38%	46%	Hard
7	Q.7 There are four numbers such that average of first two numbers is 1 more than the first number, average of first three numbers is 2 more than average of first two numbers, and average of first four numbers is 3 more than average of first three numbers. Then, the difference between the largest and the smallest numbers, is	23%	36%	40%	Medium
8	Q.8 The selling price of a product is fixed to ensure 40% profit. If the product had cost 40% less and had been sold for 5 rupees less, then the resulting profit would have been 50%. The original selling price, in rupees, of the product is	41%	23%	36%	Medium
9	Q.9 Two places A and B are 45 kms apart and connected by a straight road. Anil goes from A to B while Sunil goes from B to A. Starting at the same time, they cross each other in exactly 1 hour 30 minutes. If Anil reaches B exactly 1 hour 15 minutes after Sunil reaches A, the speed of Anil, in km per hour, is	21%	17%	61%	Medium
10	Q.10 A glass is filled with milk. Two-thirds of its content is poured out and replaced with water. If this process of pouring out two-thirds the content and replacing with water is repeated three more times, then the final ratio of milk to water in the glass, is	23%	43%	35%	Medium
11	Q.11	1%	27%	71%	Hard
12	Q.12	5%	6%	90%	Hard
13	Q.13	13%	40%	47%	Hard
14	Q.14	29%	31%	40%	Medium
15	Q.15	3%	6%	91%	Hard
16	Q.16	2%	32%	66%	Hard
17	Q.17	5%	13%	83%	Hard
18	Q.18 A shop wants to sell a certain quantity (in kg) of grains. It sells half the quantity and an additional 3 kg of these grains to the first customer. Then, it sells half of the remaining quantity and an additional 3 kg of these grains to the second customer. Finally, when the shop sells half of the remaining quantity and an additional 3 kg of these grains to the third customer, there are no grains left. The initial quantity, in kg, of grains is	44%	13%	43%	Easy
19	Q.19	7%	35%	58%	Hard
20	Q.20 In September, the incomes of Kamal, Amal and Vimal are in the ratio 8 ∶ 6 ∶ 5. They rent a house together, and Kamal pays 15%, Amal pays 12% and Vimal pays 18% of their respective incomes to cover the total house rent in that month. In October, the house rent remains unchanged while their incomes increase by 10%, 12% and 15%, respectively. In October, the percentage of their total income that will be paid as house rent, is nearest to	39%	19%	43%	Medium
21	Q.21	4%	7%	89%	Hard
22	Q.22	11%	12%	78%	Medium

Q. No.	Question	#Correct	#Incorrect	#Skipped	Difficulty
1	Q.1 There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit. Sentence: Yet each day the flock produced eggs with calcareous shells though they apparently had not ingested any calcium from land which was entirely lacking in limestone. Paragraph: Early in this century a young Breton schoolboy who preparing himself for a scientific career began to notice a strange fact about hens in his father's poultry yard. ___(1) ___. As they scratched the soil they constantly seemed to be pecking at specks of mica, a siliceous material dotting the ground. ___(2)___. No one could explain to Louis Kervran why the chickens selected the mica, or why each time a bird was killed for the family cooking pot no trace of the mica could be found in its gizzard. ___(3) ___. It took Kervran many years to establish that the chickens were transmuting one element into another. ___(4)___.	37%	33%	30%	Medium
2	Q.2 Which of the following statements, if false, would be inconsistent with the concerns raised in the passage regarding the drivers of carnivore-human conflicts?	12%	37%	51%	Hard
3	Q.3 According to the passage, what is a significant factor that contributes to the habituation of carnivores to human presence?	33%	24%	44%	Medium
4	Q.4 Given the insights provided by Penteriani’s research and Wilkinson’s statement, which of the following conclusions can be drawn about the relationship between landscape heterogeneity and human-carnivore conflicts?	43%	10%	46%	Easy
5	Q.5 According to the passage, which of the following scenarios would MOST likely exacerbate the frequency of carnivore-human conflicts?	32%	23%	44%	Medium
6	Q.6 There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit. Sentence: [T]he Europeans did not invent globalization. Paragraph: The first phase of globalization occurred long before the introduction of either steam or electric power…Chinese consumers at all social levels consumed vast quantities of spices, fragrant woods and unusual plants. The peoples of Southeast Asia who lived in forests gave up their traditional livelihoods and completely reoriented their economies to supply Chinese consumers….___(1)___. These exchanges of the year 1000 opened some of the routes through which goods and peoples continued to travel after Columbus traversed the mid-Atlantic. ___(2)___. Yet the world of 1000 differed from that of 1492 in important ways….the travellers who encountered one another in the year 1000 were much closer technologically. ___(3)___. They changed and augmented what was already there since 1000. ___(4)___. If globalization hadn’t yet begun, Europeans wouldn’t have been able to penetrate the markets in so many places as quickly as they did after 1492.	47%	28%	24%	Easy
7	Q.7 The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage. Recent important scientific findings have emerged from crossing the boundaries of scientific fields. They stem from physicists collaborating with biologists, sociologists and others, to answer questions about our world. But physicists and their potential collaborators often find their cultures out of sync. For one, physicists often discard a lot of information while extracting broad patterns; for other scientists, information is not readily disposed. Further, many non-physicists are uncomfortable with mathematical models. Still, the desire to work on something new and different is real, and there are clear benefits from the collision of views.	49%	22%	29%	Easy
8	Q.8 There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit. Sentence: Science has officially crowned us superior to our early-rising brethren. Paragraph: My fellow night owls, grab a strong cup of coffee and gather around: I have great news. ___(1)___. For a long time, our kind has been unfairly maligned. Stereotyped as lazy and undisciplined. Told we ought to be morning larks. Advised to go to bed early so we can wake before 5am and run a marathon before breakfast like all high-flyers seem to do. Now, however, we are having the last laugh. ___(2)___. It may be a tad more complicated than that. A study published last week, which you may have already seen while scrolling at 1am, suggests that staying up late could be good for brain power. ___(3)___. Is this study a thinly veiled PR exercise conducted by a caffeine-pill company? Nope, it’s legit. ___(4)___. Research led by academics at Imperial College London studied data on more than 26,000 people and found that “self-declared ‘night owls’ generally tend to have higher cognitive scores”.	25%	47%	28%	Medium
9	Q.9 It can be inferred that all of the following contributed to a decline in the allure of spices, EXCEPT:	19%	49%	32%	Hard
10	Q.10 In the context of the passage, the people who heard the story of pepper trees being guarded by snakes would be least likely to arrive at the conclusion that	41%	34%	24%	Medium
11	Q.11 If a trader brought white peppercorns from India to medieval Europe, all of the following are unlikely to happen, EXCEPT:	37%	30%	33%	Medium
12	Q.12 In the context of the passage, which one of the following conclusions CANNOT be reached?	44%	29%	27%	Easy
13	Q.13 The author lists all of the following examples as “externalities” of major technical advances EXCEPT:	19%	31%	50%	Medium
14	Q.14 Which of the following best conveys the main point of the first paragraph?	23%	28%	49%	Medium
15	Q.15 We can assume that the author would support all of the following views EXCEPT:	10%	28%	62%	Hard
16	Q.16 Carrier, Babbage, and Edison are mentioned in the passage to illustrate the author’s point that	11%	39%	50%	Hard
17	Q.17 Five jumbled up sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5), related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence and key in the number of that sentence as your answer. 1. No known real researcher of human behaviour would say that gender is all nature or all nurture. 2. The evidence for a biological basis for gender certainly doesn’t mean we should be complacent in the face of sexism. 3. Many people are uncomfortable with the idea that gender is not purely a social construct. 4. Despite this empirical truth, researchers who study the biological basis of gender often face political pushback. 5. There’s a political preference for gender to be only a reflection of social factors and so entirely malleable.	22%	62%	16%	Hard
18	Q.18 Five jumbled up sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5), related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence and key in the number of that sentence as your answer. 1. The UK is a world leader in developing cultivated meat and the approval of a cultivated pet food is an important milestone. 2. If we’re to realise the full potential benefits of cultivated meat the government must invest in research and infrastructure. 3. The first UK applications for cultivated meat produced for humans remain under assessment with the Food Standards Agency. 4. The previous UK government had been looking at fast-tracking the approval of cultivated meat for human consumption. 5. It underscores the potential for new innovation to help reduce the negative impacts of intensive animal agriculture.	9%	78%	13%	Hard
19	Q.19 The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage. John Cleese told Fox News Digital that comedians do not have the freedom to be funny in 2022. “There’s always been limitations on what they’re allowed to say,” Cleese said. “I think it’s particularly worrying at the moment because you can only create in an atmosphere of freedom, where you’re not checking everything you say critically before you move on. What you have to be able to do is to build without knowing where you’re going because you’ve never been there before. That’s what creativity is — you have to be allowed to build. And a lot of comedians now are sitting there and when they think of something, they say something like, ‘Can I get away with it? I don’t think so. So and so got into trouble, and he said that, oh, she said that.’ You see what I mean? And that’s the death of creativity.”	45%	30%	25%	Easy
20	Q.20 According to the passage, some are opposed to making peer reviews public for all the following reasons EXCEPT that it	27%	20%	53%	Medium
21	Q.21 According to the passage, which of the following is the only reason NOT given in favour of making peer review data public?	34%	18%	49%	Medium
22	Q.22 Based on the passage we can infer that the author would most probably support	26%	25%	49%	Medium
23	Q.23 All of the following are listed as reasons why academics choose to review other scholars’ work EXCEPT:	30%	23%	47%	Medium
24	Q.24 The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage. Different from individuals, states conduct warfare operations using the DIME model— “diplomacy, information, military, and economics.” Most states do everything they can to inflict pain and confusion on their enemies before deploying the military. In fact, attacks on vectors of information are a well-worn tactic of war and usually are the first target when the charge begins. It’s common for telecom data and communications networks to be routinely monitored by governments, which is why the open data policies of the web are so concerning to many advocates of privacy and human rights. With the worldwide adoption of social media, more governments are getting involved in low-grade information warfare through the use of cyber troops. According to a study by the Oxford Internet Institute in 2020, cyber troops are “government or political party actors tasked with manipulating public opinion online.” The Oxford research group was able to identify 81 countries with active cyber troop operations utilizing many different strategies to spread false information, including spending millions on online advertising.	18%	35%	47%	Hard
1	Q.1 One resident whose house is located at L, needs to visit the post office as well as the bank. What is the minimum distance (in m) he has to walk starting from his residence and returning to his residence after visiting both the post office and the bank?	24%	13%	63%	Medium
2	Q.2 One person enters the gated area and decides to walk as much as possible before leaving the area without walking along any path more than once and always walking next to one of the lakes. Note that he may cross a point multiple times. How much distance (in m) will he walk within the gated area?	22%	7%	71%	Medium
3	Q.3 One resident takes a walk within the gated area starting from A and returning to A without going through any point (other than A) more than once. What is the maximum distance (in m) she can walk in this way?	1%	42%	56%	Hard
4	Q.4 Visitors coming for morning walks are allowed to enter as long as they do not pass by any of the residences and do not cross any point (except C) more than once. What is the maximum distance (in m) that such a visitor can walk within the gated area?	6%	32%	62%	Hard
5	Q.5 Assume that the annual rate of growth in PAT over the previous year (ARG) remained constant over the years for each of the six firms. Which among the firms A, B, C, and E had the highest ARG?	21%	10%	69%	Medium
6	Q.6 The ratio of the amount of money spent by Firm C on R&D in 2019 to that in 2023 is closest to	10%	18%	72%	Hard
7	Q.7 Which among the firms A, C, E, and F had the maximum PAT per employee in 2023?	26%	10%	64%	Medium
8	Q.8 Which among the firms C, D, E, and F had the least amount of R&D spending per employee in 2023?	10%	18%	72%	Hard
9	Q.9 What is the row number which has the least sum of numbers placed in that row?	58%	18%	24%	Easy
10	Q.10 Which of the following statements MUST be true? I. 10 is placed in a slot in Row 1. II. 1 is placed in a slot in Row 4.	42%	24%	34%	Easy
11	Q.11 Which of the following statements MUST be true? I. 2 is placed in a slot in Column 2. II. 3 is placed in a slot in Column 3.	21%	37%	42%	Medium
12	Q.12 For how many slots in the grid, placement of numbers CANNOT be determined with certainty?	26%	46%	29%	Medium
13	Q.13 What is the sum of the numbers placed in Column 4?	32%	39%	30%	Medium
14	Q.14 What best can be concluded about the number of players coached by Zara?	37%	22%	42%	Medium
15	Q.15 What was the rating of Player-7?	33%	33%	34%	Medium
16	Q.16 What was the rating of Player-6?	28%	34%	38%	Medium
17	Q.17 For how many players the ratings can be determined with certainty?	26%	39%	36%	Medium
18	Q.18 Who all were the players trained by Xena?	26%	27%	48%	Medium
19	Q.19 How many buyers gave ratings on Day 1?	12%	36%	52%	Hard
20	Q.20 What is the daily average rating of Day 3?	17%	10%	74%	Medium
21	Q.21 What is the median of all ratings given on Day 3?	17%	27%	56%	Medium
22	Q.22 Which of the following is true about the cumulative average ratings of Day 2 and Day 3?	10%	10%	80%	Medium
1	Q.1 A fruit seller has a stock of mangoes, bananas and apples with at least one fruit of each type. At the beginning of a day, the number of mangoes make up 40% of his stock. That day, he sells half of the mangoes, 96 bananas and 40% of the apples. At the end of the day, he ends up selling 50% of the fruits. The smallest possible total number of fruits in the stock at the beginning of the day is	4%	49%	47%	Hard
2	Q.2	3%	8%	89%	Hard
3	Q.3 A bus starts at 9 am and follows a fixed route every day. One day, it traveled at a constant speed of 60 km per hour and reached its destination 3.5 hours later than its scheduled arrival time. Next day, it traveled two-thirds of its route in one-third of its total scheduled travel time, and the remaining part of the route at 40 km per hour to reach just on time. The scheduled arrival time of the bus is	18%	12%	70%	Medium
4	Q.4 The coordinates of the three vertices of a triangle are: (1, 2), (7, 2), and (1, 10). Then the radius of the incircle of the triangle is	22%	33%	45%	Medium
5	Q.5 A company has 40 employees whose names are listed in a certain order. In the year 2022, the average bonus of the first 30 employees was Rs. 40000, of the last 30 employees was Rs. 60000, and of the first 10 and last 10 employees together was Rs. 50000. Next year, the average bonus of the first 10 employees increased by 100%, of the last 10 employees increased by 200% and of the remaining employees was unchanged. Then, the average bonus, in rupees, of all the 40 employees together in the year 2023 was	10%	16%	74%	Hard
6	Q.6 Bina incurs 19% loss when she sells a product at Rs. 4860 to Shyam, who in turn sells this product to Hari. If Bina would have sold this product to Shyam at the purchase price of Hari, she would have obtained 17% profit. Then, the profit, in rupees, made by Shyam is	41%	35%	24%	Medium
7	Q.7	18%	13%	69%	Medium
8	Q.8	30%	19%	51%	Medium
9	Q.9	7%	10%	84%	Hard
10	Q.10	9%	8%	83%	Hard
11	Q.11 When Rajesh's age was same as the present age of Garima, the ratio of their ages was 3:2. When Garima's age becomes the same as the present age of Rajesh, the ratio of the ages of Rajesh and Garima will become	23%	42%	36%	Medium
12	Q.12	33%	21%	46%	Medium
13	Q.13 P, Q, R and S are four towns. One can travel between P and Q along 3 direct paths, between Q and S along 4 direct paths, and between P and R along 4 direct paths. There is no direct path between P and S, while there are few direct paths between Q and R, and between R and S. One can travel from P to S either via Q, or via R, or via Q followed by R, respectively, in exactly 62 possible ways. One can also travel from Q to R either directly, or via P, or via S, in exactly 27 possible ways. Then, the number of direct paths between Q and R is	3%	33%	64%	Hard
14	Q.14	7%	6%	87%	Hard
15	Q.15 Amal and Vimal together can complete a task in 150 days, while Vimal and Sunil together can complete the same task in 100 days. Amal starts working on the task and works for 75 days, then Vimal takes over and works for 135 days. Finally, Sunil takes over and completes the remaining task in 45 days. If Amal had started the task alone and worked on all days, Vimal had worked on every second day, and Sunil had worked on every third day, then the number of days required to complete the task would have been	3%	48%	49%	Hard
16	Q.16 ABCD is a trapezium in which AB is parallel to CD. The sides AD and BC when extended, intersect at point E. If AB = 2 cm, CD = 1 cm, and perimeter of ABCD is 6 cm, then the perimeter, in cm, of ∆AEB is	21%	16%	63%	Medium
17	Q.17 Anil invests Rs 22000 for 6 years in a scheme with 4% interest per annum, compounded half-yearly. Separately, Sunil invests a certain amount in the same scheme for 5 years, and then reinvests the entire amount he receives at the end of 5 years, for one year at 10% simple interest. If the amounts received by both at the end of 6 years are equal, then the initial investment, in rupees, made by Sunil is	28%	15%	57%	Medium
18	Q.18	11%	39%	50%	Hard
19	Q.19	4%	38%	58%	Hard
20	Q.20 A vessel contained a certain amount of a solution of acid and water. When 2 litres of water was added to it, the new solution had 50% acid concentration. When 15 litres of acid was further added to this new solution, the final solution had 80% acid concentration. The ratio of water and acid in the original solution was	34%	28%	38%	Medium
21	Q.21	4%	34%	62%	Hard
22	Q.22	20%	27%	53%	Medium

Q. No.	Question	#Correct	#Incorrect	#Skipped	Difficulty
1	Q.1 The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage. When the tradwife puts on that georgic, pinstriped dress, she is not just admiring the visual cues of a fantastical past. She takes these dreams of storybook bliss literally, tracing them backward in time until she reaches a logical conclusion that satisfies her. And by doing so, she ends up delivering an unhappy reminder of just how much our lives consist of artifice and playacting. The tradwife outrages people because of her deliberately regressive ideals. And yet her behaviour is, on some level, indistinguishable from the nontradwife’s. The tradwife’s trollish genius is to beat us at our own dress-up game. By insisting that the idyllic cottage daydream should be real, right down to the primitive gender roles, she leaves others feeling hollow, cheated. The hullabaloo and headaches she causes may be the price we pay for taking too many things at face value: our just deserts, served Instagram-perfect by a manicured hand on a gorgeous ceramic dish, with fat, mouthwatering maraschino cherries on top.	14%	25%	61%	Hard
2	Q.2 In the context of the passage we can infer that to succeed in the liquor industry in China, a marketing firm must consider all of the following factors affecting the Chinese liquor market EXCEPT that	38%	21%	42%	Medium
3	Q.3 In the context of the passage, it is most likely that the author refers to Moutai’s marketing strategy as “the unholy trinity” because	23%	36%	41%	Medium
4	Q.4 The phrase “would make it an invention to rival gunpowder” has been used in the passage in a sense that is	31%	16%	53%	Medium
5	Q.5 Which one of the following is both a reason for Moutai’s success as well as a possible threat to that success?	33%	37%	31%	Medium
6	Q.6 Five jumbled up sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5), related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence and key in the number of that sentence as your answer. 1. To create a synapse, the neuron has specialized structures, often seen as tiny swellings, at its terminal end of the axon where it stores the chemicals that are emitted to transmit a signal to the next neuron. 2. This fetal warm-up act—the soldering of neural connections before the eyes actually function—is crucial to the performance of the visual system. 3. The reasons for this paring back of synapses is a mystery, but synaptic pruning is thought to sharpen and reinforce the “correct” synapses, while removing the weak and unnecessary ones. 4. Neural connections between the eyes and the brain are formed long before birth, establishing the wiring and the circuitry that allow a child to begin visualizing the world the minute she emerges from the womb. 5. During this rehearsal period, synapses—points of chemical connection—between nerve cells are generated in great excess, only to be pruned back during later development.	22%	62%	16%	Hard
7	Q.7 The author believes that a liberal arts education combined with participation in language preservation empower students in all of the following ways EXCEPT that they will	25%	32%	42%	Medium
8	Q.8 In the context of the passage, which one of the following hypothetical scenarios, if true, is NOT an example of the kind of loss that occurs when a language becomes extinct?	22%	26%	52%	Medium
9	Q.9 It can be inferred from the passage that it is likely South America had a slightly better language survival rate than North America for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:	20%	30%	49%	Medium
10	Q.10 Which one of the following hypothetical scenarios, if true, would most strongly undermine the central ideas of the passage?	16%	30%	54%	Hard
11	Q.11 There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit. Sentence: Many have had to leave their homes behind, with more than 1.3 million people being displaced due to the drought. Passage: Somalia has been dealing with an enormous humanitarian catastrophe, driven by the longest and most severe drought the country has experienced in at least 40 years. ___(1)___. Five consecutive rainy seasons have failed, causing more than 8 million people - almost half of the country’s population – to experience acute food insecurity. ___(2)___. More than 43,000 people are believed to have lost their lives, with half of the lives lost likely being children under five. The damage the drought has caused is far-reaching. ___(3)___. Farmers have lost all their agricultural income, while pastoralists have lost more than 3 million livestock, impoverishing entire communities, and leaving them on the brink of famine. ___(4)___. Some, like the pastoralists, may never be able to go back as their livelihoods have been irreversibly wiped out.	27%	52%	21%	Medium
12	Q.12 The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage. Humans have managed to tweak the underlying biology of various plants and animals to produce high-tech crops and microbes. But regulating these entities is complicated, as the framework of policies and procedures are outdated and not flexible enough to adapt to emerging technology. The question is whether regulation will ever be able to keep up with human innovation, to regulate living things, which are apt to be unpredictable and unique; to capture all the potential risks when new biological entities are introduced, or when they pass on variations of their genes?	52%	23%	25%	Easy
13	Q.13 The author mentions all of the following reasons to dismiss concerns about contaminating Mars EXCEPT:	15%	23%	62%	Medium
14	Q.14 The author is unlikely to disagree with any of the following EXCEPT:	17%	21%	61%	Medium
15	Q.15 The contrasting reactions to the Chinese and Israeli “contaminations” of lunar space	19%	27%	53%	Medium
16	Q.16 The author’s overall tone in the first paragraph can be described as	27%	23%	50%	Medium
17	Q.17 The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage. Lyric poetry is a genre of private meditation rather than public commitment. The impulse in Marxism toward changing a society deemed unacceptable in its basic design would seem to place demands on lyric poetry that such poetry, with its tendency toward the personal, the small scale, and the idiosyncratic, could never answer. There is within Marxism, however, also a strand of thought that would locate in lyric poetry alternative modes of perception and description that call forth a vision of worlds at odds with a repressive reality or that draw attention to the workings of ideology within the hegemonic culture. The poetic imagination may indeed deflect larger social concerns, but it may also be implicitly critical and utopian.	10%	22%	68%	Hard
18	Q.18 We can infer that the author is most likely to agree with which of the following statements?	57%	21%	22%	Easy
19	Q.19 The author terms language “the operating system of our civilization” for all the following reasons EXCEPT that it	48%	27%	25%	Easy
20	Q.20 The author identifies all of the following as dire outcomes of the capture of language by AI EXCEPT that it could	17%	57%	25%	Hard
21	Q.21 The tone of the passage could best be described as	25%	51%	24%	Medium
22	Q.22 There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit. Sentence: This reality is putting stress on employees who have to pay for transport, desk lunches, more childcare, clothing and that after-work socialisation – costs they haven’t incurred for nearly two years. Paragraph: ___(1)___. Prices are rising at their fastest rate in 40 years, consequently, return-to-office-related costs have shot up – think petrol and food, for instance. ___(2)___. Yet wages haven’t kept up with inflation – even despite the salary growth many workers have enjoyed during a favourable pandemic labour market. ___(3)___. This is especially jarring for workers who were able to save during remote work, when these expenditures weren’t a factor. ___(4)___. In April 2022, Umus, a London university lecturer, told BBC Worklife that they were spending nearly a quarter of what they made every day on return-to-work costs.	44%	35%	20%	Medium
23	Q.23 There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit. Sentence: Taken outside the village of Trang Bang on June 8, 1972, the picture captured the trauma and indiscriminate violence of a conflict that claimed, by some estimates, a million or more civilian lives. Paragraph: The horrifying photograph of children fleeing a deadly napalm attack has become a defining image not only of the Vietnam War but the 20^thcentury. ___(1)___. Dark smoke billowing behind them, the young subjects’ faces are painted with a mixture of terror, pain and confusion. ___(2)___. Soldiers from the South Vietnamese army’s 25^thDivision follow helplessly behind. ___(3)___. The picture was officially titled “The Terror of War,” but the photo is better known by the nickname given to naked 9-year-old at its centre “Napalm Girl”. ___(4)___.	22%	56%	21%	Hard
24	Q.24 Five jumbled up sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5), related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence and key in the number of that sentence as your answer. 1. Part of the appeal of forecasting is not just that it seems to work, but that you don’t seem to need specialized expertise to succeed at it. 2. The tight connection between forecasting and building a model of the world helps explain why so much of the early interest in the idea came from the intelligence community. 3. This was true even though the latter had access to classified intelligence. 4. One frequently cited study found that accurate forecasters’ predictions of geopolitical events, when aggregated using standard scientific methods, were more accurate than the forecasts of members of the US intelligence community who answered the same questions in a confidential prediction market. 5. The aggregated opinions of non-experts doing forecasting have proven to be a better guide to the future than the aggregated opinions of experts.	32%	52%	16%	Medium
1	Q.1 Which of the following statements is correct?	18%	16%	65%	Medium
2	Q.2 How many ATMs have cash requirements of Rs. 10 Lakhs or more?	37%	25%	38%	Medium
3	Q.3 Which of the following two statements is/are DEFINITELY true? Statement A: Each of R-A, R-B, and R-C has two ATMs. Statement B: Each of V1, V2, and V3 has two ATMs.	17%	20%	63%	Medium
4	Q.4 What best can be said about the road distance (in km) between the ATMs having the second highest and the second lowest cash requirements?	10%	25%	65%	Hard
5	Q.5 What is the number of ATMs whose locations and cash requirements can both be uniquely determined?	10%	46%	44%	Hard
6	Q.6 Which one among the countries 1 through 8, has the smallest population in 2024?	23%	22%	56%	Medium
7	Q.7 The ratio of Country 4’s GDP to Country 5’s GDP in 2026 will be closest to	23%	13%	64%	Medium
8	Q.8 Which one among the countries 1, 4, 5, and 7 will have the largest population in 2027?	7%	29%	64%	Hard
9	Q.9 For how many countries among Country 1 through Country 8 will the GDP per capita in 2027 be lower than that in 2024?	7%	45%	48%	Hard
10	Q.10 How many times the AC must have been turned off between 11:01 pm and 1:59 am?	32%	11%	57%	Medium
11	Q.11 What was the temperature outside, in degree Celsius, at 1 am?	7%	54%	39%	Hard
12	Q.12 What was the temperature outside, in degree Celsius, at 9 pm?	9%	47%	44%	Hard
13	Q.13 What best can be concluded about the number of times the AC must have either been turned on or the AC temperature setting been altered between 11:01 pm and 1:59 am?	9%	24%	67%	Hard
14	Q.14 What was the maximum difference between temperature outside and inside temperature, in degree Celsius, between 11:01 pm and 1:59 am?	12%	38%	50%	Hard
15	Q.15 How many foodgrains had a higher amount of carbohydrate per 100 grams of nutrients than M1?	31%	45%	24%	Medium
16	Q.16 How many grams of protein were there in 100 grams of nutrients in M2?	40%	31%	28%	Medium
17	Q.17 How many grams of other nutrients were there in 100 grams of nutrients in M3?	29%	40%	31%	Medium
18	Q.18 What is the median of the number of grams of protein in 100 grams of nutrients among these food grains?	29%	31%	40%	Medium
19	Q.19 How many subscribers belonged to the ‘Others’ category in 2024?	29%	21%	50%	Medium
20	Q.20 What percentage of subscribers in the ‘Kid’ category used multiple apps in 2023?	27%	20%	52%	Medium
21	Q.21 What was the percentage increase in the number of subscribers in the ‘Elder’ category from 2023 to 2024?	32%	19%	49%	Medium
22	Q.22 What could be the minimum percentage of subscribers who used multiple apps in 2024?	28%	13%	59%	Medium
1	Q.1 After two successive increments, Gopal's salary became 187.5% of his initial salary. If the percentage of salary increase in the second increment was twice of that in the first increment, then the percentage of salary increase in the first increment was	47%	18%	34%	Easy
2	Q.2 Aman invests Rs 4000 in a bank at a certain rate of interest, compounded annually. If the ratio of the value of the investment after 3 years to the value of the investment after 5 years is 25 : 36, then the minimum number of years required for the value of the investment to exceed Rs 20000 is	21%	42%	37%	Hard
3	Q.3	35%	18%	47%	Medium
4	Q.4	7%	6%	88%	Hard
5	Q.5	10%	15%	75%	Hard
6	Q.6 The midpoints of sides AB, BC, and AC in ∆ABC are M, N, and P, respectively. The medians drawn from A, B, and C intersect the line segments MP, MN and NP at X, Y, and Z, respectively. If the area of ∆ABC is 1440 sq cm, then the area, in sq cm, of ∆XYZ is	12%	38%	51%	Hard
7	Q.7 A train travelled a certain distance at a uniform speed. Had the speed been 6 km per hour more, it would have needed 4 hours less. Had the speed been 6 km per hour less, it would have needed 6 hours more. The distance, in km, travelled by the train is	34%	9%	57%	Medium
8	Q.8	4%	61%	35%	Hard
9	Q.9	15%	7%	78%	Medium
10	Q.10 A certain amount of water was poured into a 300 litre container and the remaining portion of the container was filled with milk. Then an amount of this solution was taken out from the container which was twice the volume of water that was earlier poured into it, and water was poured to refill the container again. If the resulting solution contains 72% milk, then the amount of water, in litres, that was initially poured into the container was	5%	39%	56%	Hard
11	Q.11	5%	10%	85%	Hard
12	Q.12 The number of all positive integers up to 500 with non-repeating digits is	7%	51%	42%	Hard
13	Q.13 In a group of 250 students, the percentage of girls was at least 44% and at most 60%. The rest of the students were boys. Each student opted for either swimming or running or both. If 50% of the boys and 80% of the girls opted for swimming while 70% of the boys and 60% of the girls opted for running, then the minimum and maximum possible number of students who opted for both swimming and running, are	10%	12%	78%	Hard
14	Q.14	25%	31%	44%	Medium
15	Q.15	17%	22%	61%	Medium
16	Q.16	13%	30%	57%	Hard
17	Q.17 Gopi marks a price on a product in order to make 20% profit. Ravi gets 10% discount on this marked price, and thus saves Rs 15. Then, the profit, in rupees, made by Gopi by selling the product to Ravi, is	46%	30%	24%	Easy
18	Q.18	36%	9%	55%	Medium
19	Q.19	43%	21%	36%	Easy
20	Q.20 Rajesh and Vimal own 20 hectares and 30 hectares of agricultural land, respectively, which are entirely covered by wheat and mustard crops. The cultivation area of wheat and mustard in the land owned by Vimal are in the ratio of 5 : 3. If the total cultivation area of wheat and mustard are in the ratio 11 : 9, then the ratio of cultivation area of wheat and mustard in the land owned by Rajesh is	38%	24%	38%	Medium
21	Q.21 The average of three distinct real numbers is 28. If the smallest number is increased by 7 and the largest number is reduced by 10, the order of the numbers remains unchanged, and the new arithmetic mean becomes 2 more than the middle number, while the difference between the largest and the smallest numbers becomes 64. Then, the largest number in the original set of three numbers is	11%	40%	50%	Hard
22	Q.22	6%	11%	82%	Hard

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CAT 2024 Score Calculator From Response Sheet

Cracku's CAT Score Calculator 2024 will help you to predict your score and anticipate your percentile before the official results are released. Using Cracku's reliable and accurate score calculator, you can get real-time insights into your performance, which will help you to find out your position among other candidates, and even anticipate your chances of receiving interview calls from major IIM Colleges.

This guide will show you how you can use Cracku's CAT Score Calculator, review your CAT response sheet 2024, and understand how your predicted percentile will affect your IIM applications.

What is CAT Score Calculator?

Cracku's CAT score calculator is an easy tool that helps students to calculate their raw scores and predict their percentiles well before the official CAT results are out. The tool estimates your overall score based upon your section-specific scores in Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension (VARC), Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning (DILR), and Quantitative Ability (QA). The CAT score calculator can then predict your percentile and even provide information about your chances of getting calls from top IIMs by analyzing historical trends.

How does Cracku’s CAT Score Calculator work?

Correct answers earn you 3 marks each.
Incorrect answers for multiple-choice questions (MCQs) incur a penalty of -1 mark.
Unattempted questions do not affect your score.
TITA Questions: No -ve marking

Cracku's score calculator considers these factors and compares your raw score to past exam results and gives you a percentile prediction. This allows you to plan your next steps carefully, long before the official results.

Also check, CAT Exam Analysis

How to Use Cracku’s CAT Score Calculator 2024

Using Cracku’s CAT score calculator is straightforward. Follow these steps to get the most accurate results:

Access the Calculator: Visit Cracku’s website and open the score calculator tool for 2024.
Input Your Response Sheet link: Go to your response sheet on IIM official website -> Copy the link (URL) and paste it in the enter URL section on score calculator
View the Results: The calculator will display your estimated raw score.
Check Percentile Prediction: Use Cracku’s CAT percentile predictor to convert your raw score into an estimated percentile.
Analyze and Plan: Compare your predicted percentile with the cutoff trends of different IIMs and other B-schools.
Prepare for Next Steps: Based on your percentile, start preparing for interviews, group discussions, or consider backup options.

Cracku’s CAT score calculator and percentile predictor are essential tools for anyone serious about making the most of their CAT results.

Also Check, How To Use CAT Score Calculator

CAT Response Sheet 2024

Your CAT response sheet 2024 is an important tool in determining your expected score. After you complete the CAT exam, IIM will release your response sheet, which will include both the answers you provided during the exam and the correct answers from the official answer key. This document will help you analyze your performance, highlight areas where you performed well, and to understand your faults. Generally, it is released within 2-3 days after CAT

To use Cracku’s CAT Score Calculator effectively, you will need to:

Cross-check your answers with the official answer key.
Tally your correct and incorrect responses for each section.
Input these details into Cracku’s score calculator for a fast and accurate score estimate.

Using the response sheet to calculate your raw score allows you to have a better understanding of your performance and prepare for the next stage of your MBA journey, whether it is retaking the exam or preparing for interviews.

CAT Score vs Percentile 2024 (Expected)

One of the most common questions CAT aspirants ask is how their CAT score translates into a CAT percentile. Understanding this relationship is crucial because, while your score reflects the number of questions you answered correctly, your percentile measures how you performed relative to other candidates.

Using historical data, Cracku’s CAT percentile predictor can give you a reasonable estimate of your percentile based on your raw score. Here’s a general guide to CAT score vs percentile 2024.

%ile	Overall	VARC	LRDI	Quant
99.95%	129.67	53.95	52.51	48.15
99.90%	123.86	51.20	50.32	45.27
99.50%	105.00	44.50	41.38	36.87
99.00%	96.35	40.58	37.60	33.11
98.00%	86.91	36.42	33.98	28.83
97.00%	81.51	34.00	31.28	26.69
95.00%	73.46	30.18	28.06	23.48
90.00%	60.70	24.55	23.08	18.07
85.00%	52.63	20.80	19.81	14.92
80.00%	46.57	17.95	17.46	12.43
75.00%	41.61	15.62	15.45	10.64
70.00%	38.11	14.15	14.28	9.57
65.00%	35.09	13.00	13.22	8.50
60.00%	32.51	11.46	12.16	7.43
55.00%	30.24	10.42	11.10	6.79
50.00%	28.27	9.85	10.07	5.88
40.00%	22.94	7.50	8.05	4.22
30.00%	18.65	5.60	6.86	3.03
20.00%	14.79	3.70	5.02	1.84

These figures are based on trends from previous years, and while they offer a good estimation, the actual percentile for 2024 might vary depending on the difficulty level of the exam and the overall performance of candidates. Cracku’s CAT Score Calculator 2024 uses sophisticated algorithms and past data to give you an accurate percentile prediction, ensuring you’re well-prepared for what’s ahead.

How Does Cracku’s CAT Percentile Predictor Work?

Cracku’s CAT percentile predictor uses advanced data models to estimate your percentile based on the raw scores you input. By analyzing the performance of thousands of test-takers from previous years, Cracku’s tool provides a reliable estimate of your percentile, which is essential for predicting your chances of receiving interview calls from IIMs.

Here’s how the CAT percentile predictor works:

Input your section-wise scores: Enter your CAT raw scores for VARC, DILR, and QA.
Weightage across sections: Each section contributes equally to your final percentile, so strong performance in all sections is key.
Historical comparison: Cracku’s tool compares your score with historical trends to estimate your percentile.
Estimated percentile: Once calculated, you’ll receive an estimated percentile that reflects your relative performance.

With this information in hand, you’ll have a clearer understanding of your standing and can begin planning for the next phase of the admissions process.

CAT Score Prediction: How to Estimate Your Final Percentile with Cracku

While Cracku’s CAT score calculator provides an accurate estimate of your raw score, the final percentile depends on several variables. Here’s what influences your final percentile:

Overall performance of all candidates: If the CAT exam in 2024 is tougher, a lower raw score could still result in a high percentile.
Sectional cutoffs: Each section has its own difficulty level, and these cutoffs will influence your sectional percentile.
Score normalization: The CAT exam is conducted in multiple shifts, so scores are normalized to ensure fairness across different exam sessions.

Using Cracku’s CAT percentile predictor in combination with the score calculator ensures that you have a reliable estimate of your final results, helping you better plan for your MBA admission strategy.

CAT 2024 Slotwise Difficulty Analysis

	Slot-1	Slot-2	Slot-3
VARC	Moderate	Moderate	Moderate - Difficult
DILR	Easy - Moderate	Moderate	Moderate
QA	Moderate	Moderate	Moderate

VARC (Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension) was consistent in all the test sections, with 4 Reading Comprehension passages and 8 Verbal Ability questions. They also included the "Odd One Out" format again. Each Reading Comprehension passage was similar in difficulty to those in the CAT 2022 VARC Section. All the three slots of DILR (Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning) section were equally manageable, with two doable sets. However, in the QA (Quantitative Aptitude) section of Slot 3, the questions were considered the toughest. They were a bit longer, more tricky, and involved more complex calculations, making them more time-consuming. Overall, considering all aspects, Slot 3 is the most challenging.

CAT 2024 Percentile Predictor

CAT Score Calculator 2024

How to check CAT score 2024?