What is the ratio of the total number of cars sold by dealer P in February, April and May to the total number of cars sold by dealer S in March, May and June?
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The table given below represents the number of cars sold by four dealers P, Q, R and S in six months of a given year. Based on the given data, answer the question.
What is the ratio of the total number of cars sold by dealer P in February, April and May to the total number of cars sold by dealer S in March, May and June?
Number of cars sold by P in February, April and May = 94 + 108 + 98 = 300.
Number of cars sold by S in March, May and June = 90 + 89 + 91 = 270.
The required ratio = 300 : 270 = 10:9 i.e. Option D.
The total number of cars sold by dealer P during February to June is what
percent(%) more than the total cars sold by all the dealers in June?
Total number of cars sold by Dealer P from Feb to June = 94 + 85 + 108 + 98 + 95 = 480.
Total cars sold by all the dealers in June = 396.
The required percentage = $$\frac{480-396}{396}\times\ 100\ \approx\ \ 21.2\%$$.
The total number of cars sold by dealer Q in Apri l, May and June is what
percent of the total number of cars sold by all dealers in February and April ?
The total number of cars sold by dealer Q in April, May and June = 97 + 102 + 108 = 307.
the total number of cars sold by all dealers in February and April = 400 + 400 = 800.
The required percentage = $$\frac{307}{800}\times\ 100\ =\ 38\frac{3}{8}\%$$ i.e. Option D.
The digit in the unit's place of the resulting number of the expression $$ 48 \left(234\right)^{100}+\left(234\right)^{101}$$ is
The unit digit of the expression will be equal to the unit digit of:
$$48\times\ 4^{100}+4^{101}$$.
Odd powers of 4 gives 4 as the unit digit and even powers give 6.
So, the unit digit will be the unit digit of 8*6 + 4 i.e. 2.
$$ A+\frac{1}{B+\frac{1}{C-9}}=\frac{29}{5} $$, then the value of $$A+B+C$$, is
$$B+\frac{1}{C-9}=\frac{B\left(C-9\right)+1}{C-9}$$
$$\frac{1}{B+\frac{1}{C-9}}=\frac{C-9}{B\left(C-9\right)+1}$$.
Putting this value in the equation to get:
$$A+\frac{C-9}{B\left(C-9\right)+1}=\frac{A\cdot B\cdot\left(C-9\right)+A+\left(C-9\right)}{B\cdot\left(C-9\right)+1}=\frac{29}{5}$$.
This means that B(C-9) + 1 = 5 ==> B(C-9) = 4.
C- 9 can be 1 or 2 or 4.
and, $$A\cdot B\cdot\left(C-9\right)+A+\left(C-9\right)=29$$.
4*A + A + (C-9) = 29
5A + (C-9) = 29
C-9 has to be 4 which gives A = 5 and C = 13.
B*(C-9) = 4 which means B = 1.
A + B + C = 5 + 1 + 13 = 19.
Consider the following figures (I, II and Ill) and the statements (A, B, C and D) regarding them.
A. The areas of three figures are different
B. The areas of three figures are equal
C. The perimeters of three figures are equal
D. Perimeters of figures (I) and (II) are equal
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Area of (I) = Length * Breadth = 9*4 = 36 sq cm.
Perimeter of (I) = 2*(Length + Breadth) = 2*(9+4) = 26 cm.
Area of (II) = Square of side = 6^2 = 36 sq cm.
Perimeter of (II) = 4*side = 4*6 = 24 cm.
Area of (III) = half of Perpendicular * Base = half of 9*8 = 36 sq cm.
Perimeter of (III) = sum of sides = 9 + 8 + $$\sqrt{\ 9^2+8^2}=17\ +\ \sqrt{\ 145}$$.
Only statement B is correct i.e. The areas of three figures are equal.
Even after reducing the marked price of an item, by Rs. 32, a shopkeeper makes a profit of 15%. If the cost price is Rs. 320, what percentage of profit would he have made, if he had sold the item at the marked price?
Cost Price = 320 and he earned a profit of 15% which makes the Selling Price = 1.15*320 ==> 368.
This Selling Price is attained by giving a discount of 32 on the Marked Price which gives:
Marked Price = 368 + 32 = 400.
Profit earned after he sold it at Marked Price = $$\frac{400-320}{320\ }\times\ 100\ =\ 25\%$$.
Raman can do a piece of work in 16 days. Satish can do the same work in 8 days while Ashok can do it in 32 days. All of them worked together when they started, but Satish left after 2 days. Raman left 3 days before the completion of work. How long did it take to complete the entire work?
Let us assume that the work to be done is 32 units i.e. the LCM of 8, 16 and 32.
Efficiencies of Raman, Satish and Ashok are 2, 4 and 1 units per day respectively.
Let us assume that they completed the work in X days.
Satish worked for 2 days, Raman worked for X-3 days and Ashok worked for X days which led to the completing of work in X days.
Total work done: 2*4 + (X-3)*2 + X*1 = 3X + 2.
This is equal to Total work = 32.
3X + 2 = 32
==> X = 10 days.
Four different electronic devices make a beep after every 30 minutes, 1 hour, 1½ hour and 1 hour 45 minutes, respectively. All these devices beeped together at 12 noon. They will again beep together at
All the devices will again beep together after every N minutes where N is the LCM of 30 mis, 1hr, 1hr 30 mins and 1 hr 45 mins.
We need to find the LCM of 30, 60, 90 and 105 mins.
Their LCM will be 1260 mins i.e. 21 hrs.
So, if they beeped together at 12 noon, next time, they will beep together at 12 noon + 21 hrs = 9 am.
Sudhir purchased a chair with three successive discounts of 20%, 12.5% and 5%. The equivalent single discount is:
We will use the successive discount formula to calculate the overall discount.
Overall discount after giving a discount of 20% and 5% = $$20+5-\frac{20\times\ 5}{100}=25-1\ =24\%$$.
Now, we give another discount of 12.5% to get an overall discount of:
$$24\ +\ 12.5-\frac{24\times\ 12.5}{100}=33.5\%$$ i.e. Option A.
In Kendriya Vidyalaya, Ujjain, 20 percent of students are athletes. In Navodaya Vidyalaya, Ujjain, 25 percent of students are athletes. If Navodaya Vidyalaya has 60% more students than Kendriya Vidyalaya, then the number of athletes in Navodaya Vidyalaya is what percent of the athletes of Kendriya Vidyalaya?
Let us assume that the number of students in Kendriya Vidyalaya = 100.
This means that the number of students in Navodaya Vidyalaya = 1.6*100 = 160.
Athletes in Kendriya Vidyalaya = 20% of 100 = 20 and,
Athletes in Navodaya Vidyalaya = 25% of 160 = 40.
Required percentage = $$\frac{40}{20}\times\ 100\ =\ 200\%$$
Consider the following statements about numbers.
A. There exists a smallest natural number.
B. There exists a largest natural number.
C. Every rational number is also a real number.
D. Between two consecutive natural numbers, there is always a natural number.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Only statements A and C are correct i.e. Option D.
If height and radius of right circular cylinder are equal and its volume is $$ \frac{176}{7} cm^{3}$$, then find the radius.
Let us assume the height and radius to be R.
Volume of the cylinder = $$\pi\ \times\ R^2\times\ height\ =\ \pi\ \times\ R^3$$
==> $$\frac{22}{7}\times\ R^3=\frac{176}{7}$$
This gives R = 2 cm i.e. Option C.
In triangles $$ABC$$ and $$ADC$$ in the above figure, $$\angle BAC = \angle ADC = 90^\circ$$. Also, $$DC$$ is $$2$$ units long and $$AC$$ is $$4$$ units long. What is the length of $$BC$$?
Triangle CDA will be similar to Triangle CAB with AAA similarity.
This gives : $$\frac{CD}{CA}=\frac{CA}{CB}$$
==> $$\frac{2}{4}=\frac{4}{BC}$$
==>BC = 8 units i.e. Option A.
A person buys two watches for a total sum of Rs. 1,000. He sells one watch at a loss of 5% and the other at a gain of 20% and on the whole, he gains Rs. 50. Th e cost prices of the two watches are:
Let us assume the cost of 2 watches to be 100a and 100b.
100a + 100b = 1000 ==> a + b = 10.
Selling price of 1st watch after 5% loss = 0.95*100a = 95a.
Selling price of 2nd watch after 20% gain = 1.20*100b = 120b.
Total selling price => 95a + 120b = 1050.
We will multiple the 1st equation with 95 and subtract it from the 2nd:
25b = 100 ==> b = 4 and a = 6.
The Costs of the 2 watches come out to be 600 and 400 i.e. Option C.
85 litres of a mixture contain milk and water in the ratio 27:7. How much more water is required to be added in the mixture, so that the resulting mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 3:1?
Quantity of milk in the mixture = $$\frac{27}{27+7}\times\ 85\ =\ 67.5$$.
Let us assume that X litres of water is added which makes the quantity of new solution = 85+X.
Milk content remains the same which means that:
$$\frac{3}{3+1}\times\ \times\ \left(85+X\right)=67.5$$.
This gives X = 5 litres.
The value of the following sum of terms $$\frac{5}{2^2 \cdot 3^2}+\frac{7}{3^2 \cdot 4^2}+\frac{9}{4^2 \cdot 5^2}+\frac{11}{5^2 \cdot 6^2}+\frac{13}{6^2 \cdot 7^2}+\frac{15}{7^2 \cdot 8^2}$$
The nth term of the series can be written as:
$$\frac{2n+1}{n^2\left(n+1\right)^2}$$.
Now, 2n+1 can be written as: $$\left(n+1\right)^2-n^2$$.
This gives nth term to be:
$$\frac{\left(\left(n+1\right)^2-n^2\right)}{n^2\times\ \left(n+1\right)^2}=\frac{1}{n^2}-\frac{1}{\left(n+1\right)^2}$$.
Now, we put values of n from 2 to 7 and add them to get:
$$\left(\frac{1}{2^2}-\frac{1}{3^2}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{3^2}-\frac{1}{4^2}\right)+...\left(\frac{1}{7^2}-\frac{1}{8^2}\right)=\frac{1}{2^2}-\frac{1}{8^2}$$.
==> $$\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{64}=\frac{15}{64}$$.
The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is always divisible by:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Let the odd numbers be: 2n+1, 2n+3, 2n+5.
Their sum will be: 2n+1 + 2n+3 + 2n+5 = 6n+9
==> 3*(2n+3).
So, the sum is always divisible by 3 only i.e. Option D.
Four coins are tossed simultaneously. What is the probability that two consecutive heads never occur together?
Probability of 2 consecutive heads being never together = 1 - Probability of 2 consecutive heads being together.
Cases where 2 heads are consecutive :
HHHH = 1 case.
THHH, HTHH, HHTH and HHHT = 4 cases.
HHTT, THHT and TTHH = 3 cases.
Total cases where 2 heads come consecutively = 8 cases.
Total number of possible cases with 4 coins = 2*2*2*2 = 16.
Probability of 2 consecutive heads = 8/16 = 1/2.
Now, Probability of 2 consecutive heads being never together = 1 - 1/2 = 1/2 i.e. Option D.
The value of expression $$\frac{\sqrt{\sqrt{5}+2}+\sqrt{\sqrt{5}-2}}{\sqrt{\sqrt{5}+1}}$$ is.
Let us assume $$\sqrt{\ \sqrt{\ 5}+2}+\sqrt{\ \sqrt{\ 5}-2}=a$$.
Squaring both sides:
$$\left(\sqrt{\ 5}+2\right)+\left(\sqrt{\ 5}-2\right)+2\sqrt{\ \left(\sqrt{\ 5}+2\right)\left(\ \sqrt{\ 5}-2\right)}=2\sqrt{\ 5}+2=a^2$$
==> $$a\ =\ \sqrt{\ 2}\times\ \left(\sqrt{\ \sqrt{\ 5}+1}\right)$$
and, $$\frac{a}{\left(\sqrt{\ \sqrt{\ 5}+1}\right)}=\sqrt{\ 2}$$ i.e. Option B.
What will be the next term in the following series?
C4X, F9U, I16R,
C + 3 = F ==> F + 3 = I.
$$2^2\ =\ 4$$ ==> $$3^2\ =\ 9$$ ==> $$4^2\ =\ 16$$.
X - 3 = U ==> U - 3 = R.
Following this pattern, next term will be:
I + 3 = L
$$5^2\ =\ 25$$
R - 3 = O
==> L25O i.e. Option A.
The number of pentagons in the adjoining figure are:

There are 4 pentagons similar to BHGED, each starting from B, H, F and D.
Also, there are 4 pentagons similar to GHBDF, each starting from G, A, C and E.
Thus, there are a total of 8 pentagons.
The consonants of English alphabet have been coded by using digits 1 to 8.
If any vowel is not in the beginning or last, it is coded as 6.If any vowel is at the beginning only or in last only, it is coded as 9.If the vowel is placed at both beginning and last, it is coded as '$' at both places. With reference to the above information, choose the correct form of the combination of letters
ENIANGE.
As E, a vowel, is at both the beginning and last, it will be coded as $.
N will be coded as 4.
I and A will be coded as 6as they are neither at beginning or at last.
G will be coded as 5.
So, the final code will be $46645$ i.e. Option B.
Select from the options, the box that can be formed by folding the sheet shown in the following figure

The box will look like Option D.
How many triangles does the following figure have?

There are a total of 21 triangles. Thus, the correct answer is Option B.
Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a straight line (not necessarily in the same order) facing north, only two persons sit between F and G, and G sits second to the left of B. D sits third to the left of C. E sits exactly between G and B, and B sits at the extreme right end of row. Who amongst the following sits exactly in the middle of the line?
B sits at the extreme right end, G sits 2nd to the left of B and E sits exactly between G and B. This gives:
_ _ _ _ G E B.
Only 2 persons sit between F and G which gives:
_ F _ _ G E B
D sits 3rd to the left of C which gives
D F _ C G E B and the remaining place is taken by A.
The final arrangement is:
D F A C G E B.
The person sitting exactly in the middle is C.
If 'POND' is coded as 'RSTL', how 'HEAR' will be written in that code?
P + 2 = R
O + 4 = S
N + 6 = T
D + 8 = L.
Following the same pattern, HEAR will be coded as:
H + 2 = J
E + 4 = I
A + 6 = G
R + 8 = Z
Thus, the code will be JIGZ.
The following question consists of a statement followed by conclusions I, II and III.
Statement: Some hills are rivers. Some rivers are deserts. All deserts are roads.
Conclusions: I. Some roads are rivers.
II. Some roads are hills.
III. Some deserts are hills.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

As we can see that only Conclusion 1 follows, the answer will be Option A.
Pointing to a photograph, Varun said, "She is the mother of my son's wife's daughter." How ia Varun related to the lady?
Varun's son's wife's daughter will be Varun's grand daughter.
And his grand daughter's mother will be Varun's daughter-in-law.
So, Varun is the father-in-law of that lady i.e. Option D.
A man is facing west. He turns $$45^{\circ}$$ in the clockwise direction and then another $$180^{\circ}$$ in the same direction and then $$270^{\circ}$$ in the anti-clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
Varun is facing west and after turning 45 degrees in Clockwise direction, he will be facing North-West.
After turning 180 degrees in the same direction i.e. clockwise, he will be facing South-East.
After turning 270 degrees in the anti-clockwise direction, he will be facing South West.
In a queue, A is eighteenth from the front While B is sixteenth from end. If C is twenty fifth from the front and is exactly in the middle of A and B, then how many persons are there in the queue?
A is 18th from the front and C is 25th from the front.
It means that there are 6 people between A and C.
As C is in the middle of A and B, there must be 6 people between B and C.
This implies that B is 32nd from the front and 16th from the end which implies that there are 32 + 16 - 1 = 47 students in the row.
Consider the following information and answer the question given below:
. 'P # Q' means 'P is the father of Q';
. 'P + Q' means 'P is the mother of Q';
. 'P - Q'means 'P is the brother of Q';
. 'P * Q' means 'P is the sister of Q'.
Given, A + B # C - D, then A is D's
A + B implies A is mother of B.
B # C implies B is the father of C. This means that A is grandmother of C.
C - D implies C is brother of D which means that A is the grandmother to D also.
Finding the missing number (?) in the following arrangement:

half of (15 - 5) * (2 + 6) = 40
half of (9 - 4) * (7 + 5) = 30.
Following the same pattern, the ? should be:
half of (17 - 13) * (13 + 12) = 50 i.e. Option D.
Consider the following information and answer the question given below:
. 'P # Q' means 'P is the father of Q';
. 'P + Q' means 'P is the mother of Q';
. 'P - Q' means 'P is the brother of Q';
. 'P * Q' means 'P is the sister of Q'.
Which of the following shows that A is the aunt of E?
Option B i.e. A * B # C * D - E implies that A is the aunt of E.
Find the missing number (?) in the following figure:

A pair of words is given below, which have a certain relationship with each other.
Hope: Aspire
Select a correct option that has the same relationship as the original pair of words.
The original pair, Hope : Aspire, consists of synonyms (both words mean to desire or aim for something). Similarly, Fib and Lie are synonyms, as both refer to telling a falsehood, maintaining the same semantic relationship.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B.
In the following figure, rectangle, square, circle and triangle represent the regions of apple, Orange, grapes and watermelon cultivation , respectively. Which area is cultivated by grapes and watermelon and nothing else?

The area cultivated by grapes and watermelon and nothing else is the area only common to only the circle and triangle.
This area is marked by 4 i.e. Option C.
The following question consists of a statement followed by two arguments I and II.
Statement: Should there be a complete ban on use of all types of chemical pesticides in India?
Arguments: I. Yes, chemical pesticides used in agriculture pollute the underground water and thus they become a serious health hazard.
II.No, the pests will destroy all the crops and farmers will have nothing to harvest.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct answer is D) Both Argument I and II are strong.
Argument I is strong because it addresses a significant, evidence-based environmental and public health concern regarding groundwater contamination.
Argument II is strong because it highlights the immediate, practical economic threat to food security and farmer livelihoods, as a total ban without alternatives would lead to massive crop failure.
In critical reasoning, both arguments are considered "strong" because they provide valid, logical reasons for and against the statement from different but equally important perspectives (health vs. survival).
Angle between two hands of the clock at 3.15 P.M. is
The angle between the 2 hands of a clock at 3 PM = 90 degrees where the hour hand is ahead of the minute hand.
The distance between the hands will reduce by 5.5 degrees per minute.
So, the angle between the hands at 3.15 PM = $$90-15\times\ 5.5=7.5$$ degrees or 7 degrees and 30 minutes.
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion [A] and the other is labelled as Reason [R].
Assertion [A]: Pressure cookers are fitted with Ebonite handles.
Reason [R]: Ebonite is a good conductor of heat.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Assertion [A] is true because pressure cookers use Ebonite (a hard vulcanized rubber) for handles to prevent burns.
Reason [R] is false because Ebonite is actually a poor conductor (insulator) of heat, which is precisely why it is used so it stays cool even while the metal pot is hot.
thus, the correct answer is Option C.
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the underlined phrase in the following sentence.
Satish cooked up a savoury tale.
Concocted means to create, formulate, mix or invent something, usually in a deceptive way. Cooked up is an informal phrase that means the same thing. Hence, concocted is the best fit here.
Which one of the following is grammatically incorrect?
Veena inquired of Manorama why she had taken her pen? Is grammatically correct, but it is a sentence of indirect speech, and hence it should not end with a question mark. It should end with a period (full stop)
Which one of the following is grammatically and logically correct?
Milton is the Surdas of England
This is the correct sentence, grammatically and logically, as it uses the article “the” appropriately, comparing Milton of England to Surdas of India and drawing a similarity between them.
Click the correct option (preposition) to complete the following sentence.
His folly has brought __________ his ruins.
“Brought about his ruin” is a common English idiom, meaning to cause someone’s downfall, destruction or failure, usually due to one’s own doing. So here, brought about ruin is the most appropriate choice.
Choose the odd one out.
Rennie is not only kind but also devoted is grammatically and logically correct, but it is the odd one out here, because out of all the sentences, this is the only sentence that uses connective conjunctions (not only…but also); all the other sentences use noun clauses (that, whether)
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the underlined phrase in the following sentence.
The ship was cast away on the coast of Africa.
Cast away
Cast away means to discard, throw or be stranded after a shipwreck. So, here, wrecked (damaged, ruined) is the most appropriate choice.
Today our society abounds with persons who are mad after their own interest. In Sarvodaya, however, one has (I) solicitous of others’ interest. Man’s nature will have to be changed. Values of life will (II) re-valued. For, if the individual does not change even if exploitation is put out once, it will reappear afterwards. This is a high ideal no doubt, but is capable of being attained. That can be done by making a beginning somewhere.
Bhoodan is the process whereby we can reach this goal. The land problem is a problem that (III) crores of people. Hence, the Bhoodan movement makes a direct appeal to the masses and would inevitably cast its influence on their approach and way of life.
In the given passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Find out the appropriate options in each case to replace the given number.
Pick the appropriate replacement for (III).
The land problem is the one that (__) crores of people. We have to fill in this blank appropriately. The correct choice here is affects, since it is a Simple present tense sentence.
Pick the appropriate replacement for (II).
We have to fill in this blank with the appropriate option from the given options. We have to evaluate the grammar and singular/plural forms here to pick the right choice.
Have to be is the correct grammatical choice, as the simple present tense is used throughout the paragraph, since the facts are presented in general terms. “ Has to be” is incorrect because “values of life” is plural, and “have” is used with plural forms, whereas “has” is used with singular forms.
Pick the appropriate replacement for (I).
Here, “to be” is the correct choice, since the paragraph is in the simple present tense, and to be is the correct form of the simple present tense here.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: A simple sentence is one which has only one subject and one predicate.
Statement II: A simple sentence is one which has only one finite verb.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option give below:
A simple sentence is, by definition, a sentence that has one subject and one predicate. Example- The cat (subject) sat on the mat (predicate). Hence, statement one is correct.
A simple sentence also has only one finite verb. Like in ‘the cat sat on the mat’, sat is the only verb. Whereas, in a complex sentence “The cat sits on the mat when she feels bored,” there are two verbs- sit and feel. Hence, sentence two is also correct.
“A person who is prejudiced in his views and intolerant of the opinions of others” is known as
Traditional: Someone or something that follows long-established customs, beliefs, or practices passed down from generation to generation. It simply means adherence to old ways. Example: a traditional wedding ceremony.
Orthodox: Conforming strictly to established doctrines, beliefs, or practices — especially in religion. An orthodox person follows the accepted, standard, or conventional way without deviation. Example: an orthodox interpretation of the scripture.
Bigot: A person who is intolerant of those who hold different opinions, belong to a different group, race, religion, or culture. A bigot is stubbornly and unreasonably attached to their own beliefs while being hostile to others. Example: a bigot who refuses to accept people of other faiths.
Ideologue: A person who follows an ideology — a set of beliefs or ideas — very rigidly and dogmatically, often without being open to reason or evidence.
Hence, bigot is the most appropriate choice here. Because a bigot is not just prejudiced but also intolerant of others’ views.
Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Past Participle usually ends in -ed, -en, -d, -t, used in perfect tenses or passive voice. Example: He has broken the glass. / The work was finished.
So, the selected paper was published is the past participle.
To distinguish Gerund from Present Participle: Both end in -ing, but the gerund acts as a noun (Reading is fun) while the present participle acts as a verb or adjective (She is reading / a reading lamp).
Read the following sentences and choose the one belonging to the domain of compound sentences.
A compound sentence joins two or more independent clauses (each of which can stand alone as a sentence). These clauses are joined by coordinating conjunctions, semicolons, and adverbs, such as no, but, however, whereas, etc.
Christ was hated by his persecutors; nonetheless, he loved them is a compound sentence because first it has a coordinating conjunction- nonetheless and second, because each of the two clauses (Christ was hated by his persecutors, he loved them) is an independent clause that can be used as a sentence of their own.
All other sentences have clauses that cannot be used as sentences on their own, and therefore, they are not compound sentences.
Which one of the following belongs to the domain of positive degree sentence?
Positive degree is the base/plain form of an adjective or adverb with no comparison involved. It simply describes a quality without comparing it to anything.
"Kashmir is the most beautiful place in the world" is a Superlative Degree sentence, not a positive degree, because of the word "most beautiful."
Similarly, lead is the heaviest of all metals, is superlative, and Marina is fatter than Clara is comparative. Hence, Kalidasa was a great poet in ancient India, which is the only positive degree sentence among the options.
Rearrange the following components to get a meaningful sentence.
A. to discuss questions such as whether
B. you have to be clear about what a scientific theory is
C. about the nature of the universe and
D. it has a beginning or an end
E. in order to talk
E starts a sentence idea: In order to talk
C continues the idea introduced in the opening sentence
A introduces a new discussion/ question
D is a follow-up pair of A because A ends with ‘whether’ and D follows with ‘it’
B is conclusive of what is needed to answer the question, introduced by A
Given below are two statements: Assertion [A] and Reason [R].
Assertion [A]: The following sentence is an example of a compound sentence: “The moon was bright and we could see our way”.
Reason [R]: A complex sentence consists of one main clause and one or more subordinate clauses.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the option given below:
The moon was bright, and we could see our way in a compound sentence by definition, since it has two independent clauses that can stand as sentences of their own, connected by the adverb and.
A complex sentence contains a main clause and one or more subordinate clauses, which is also the right definition of a complex clause.
Hence, both sentences are correct.
Identify the correct indirect speech of the below given direct speech from the given options.
The prodigal son said, “I will arise and go to my father, and will say unto him: father, I have sinned against heaven and before thee, and am no more worthy to be called thy son; make me as one of thy hired servants”.
In indirect speech, " will " is replaced by " would,
After all the parts of the sentence are reported using commas + and, the last part starts with ‘and that’.
Options A and C distort the structure slightly
Option D is wrong because it uses will instead of would
Read the following sentence and identify its correct passive form from the given options:
This book contains many meaningful lessons for the kids.
The correct passive form is: “Many meaningful lessons are contained in this book for kids.” Contained of/by/to are incorrect prepositions, correct preposition is contained in, which implies the presence of content inside something.
The eventual goal of science is to provide a single theory that describes the whole universe. However, the approach most scientists actually follow is to separate the problem into two parts. First, there are the laws that tell us how the universe changes with time. (If we know what the universe is like at any one time, these physical laws tell us how it will look at any later time.) Second, there is the question of the initial state of the universe. Some people feel that science should be concerned with only the first part; they regard the question of the initial situation as a matter for metaphysics or religion. They would say that God, being omnipotent, could have started the universe off any way he wanted. That may be so, but in that case he also could have made it develop in a completely arbitrary way. Yet it appears that he chose to make it evolve in a very regular way according to certain laws. It therefore seems equally reasonable to suppose that there are also laws governing the initial state.
Which of the following terms conveys the appropriate meaning of “start of universe”?
The word synonymous with 'start' is 'genesis,' which means 'the beginning of something.' The start/ genesis of the universe is hence appropriate. Since the passage also discusses the origin and theory of the universe, Genesis is an appropriate replacement for the start.
Evolution refers to growing or development, so it is not a replacement for the start.
Which of the following statements are true about the given passage?
A. Science ultimately aims to provide a comprehensive theory of the universe.
B. The scientists have tried to understand the metaphysics of the universe only.
C. The scientists hold that God, being omnipotent, would have created the world in a completely arbitrary way.
D. Since a pattern can be inferred in the way the universe changes with time, it can be held that even its origin would also have been regulated.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Sentences A and D are correct as indicated by the passage.
Sentence A: The eventual goal of science is to provide a single theory that describes the whole universe. From this extract, statement A is correct.
Sentence B: Scientists have tried to understand metaphysics only. Only is an extreme word, and this deems the sentence incorrect. Also, the passage does not imply that scientists work only on metaphysical laws.
Sentence C: Scientists do not have this opinion. According to the passage, some people have this opinion, not scientists specifically.
Sentence D: As indicated by the last sentence of the passage- Yet it appears … the initial state. This line indicates a pattern in how the universe changes.
Who among the following are NOT the recipients of Padma Vibhushan Awards, 2025?
A. Shri M.T. Vasudev Nair
B. M. Venkiah Naidu
C. Shri Osamu Suzuki
D. Bindeshwar Pathak
E. Padma Subrahmanyam
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Which of the following countries won ICC World Cup (Men), 2023?
Who among the following won the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine, 2024?
A. Victor Ambros
B. David Baker
C. Gary Ruvkun
D. John Jumper
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Who among the following holds the record for winning the highest number of Olympic medels?
Arrange the following important battles of India in the chronological order:
A. Battle of Haldighati
B. Battle of Chausa
C. First Battle of Mysore
D. First Battle of Tarain
E. Battle of Plassey
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Who among the following is the first Indian Astronaut onboard the International Space Statio?
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The writ "Quo Warranto" may be sought to clarify in public interest the legal position in regard to the claim of a person to hold a public office.
Statement II: The writ "Mandamus" is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal, intending to prohibit it from exceeding its jurisdiction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
In which of the following, concave mirror is $$\underline{not}$$ used?
Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Which of the following countries is $$\underline{not}$$ a member of the South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA)?
Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Which of the following are components of Capital Account?
A. External commercial Borrowings
B. Government Aid
C. Equity capital
D. Gifts, Remittances and Grants
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
When was the Memorandum of Intent signed between India and Netherlands to enhance medical product regulation, aiming to improve helthcare services quality?
Which one of the following European countries accepts Indian UPI payment?
Which principle of General Management says that employee turnover should be minimizes to maintain organizational efficiency?
On which date, EPFO removed Aadhar as a proof of date of birth?
Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Which of the following of Principles of General Management states, "People and materials must be in suitable places at appropriate time for maximum efficiency"?
Which of the following institutions is responsible to promote international coorperation among monetory authorities and financial supervision of officials through the Basel process?
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: When the magma from the interior of earth comes out on the surface, tremendous heat is released, which can be successfully tapped and converted into bio-energy.
Statement II: Bio-energy is also derived from agricultural residue, municipal, industrial, and other waste and garbage.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Following Factors are essential for judging the adequacy of market for proposed business idea.
A. Demand in Domestic Market
B. Competitors and their market share
C. Demand in Export Market
D. Treasury bond yields
E. Customer tastes and preferences
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
To assess the adequacy of the market for a business, demand in domestic and international markets, competition analysis, and customer taste and preference analysis are important and directly relevant. But treasury bond yields are a macroeconomic factor used to judge financial markets, not specifically business markets, unless investor funding is directly taken into account.
For example, setting up a sugar-free ice cream startup would not directly consider bond yields when assessing the ice cream market landscape.
In case of entrepreneurial financing, which of the following is a correct sequence of stages from idea to exit?
A. Growth
B. Exit
C. Validation
D. Financing
E. Ideation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ideation -> Validation -> Financing -> Growth -> Exit is the correct sequence of stages from idea to exit in entrepreneurial financing.
Ideation is the first step because it is the root of an endeavour; next, the idea needs to be validated by assessing its feasibility, demand, and other logistical metrics. Thereafter, financing comes into play, before anything can be implemented, because everything needs capital. After financing, growth will occur, followed by an exit (a premeditated sale, merger, or liquidation).
While conducting cost-benefit analysis for an entrepreneurial innovation, which of the following represents a non-monetary benefit that would be quantified if possible?
Market entry and licensing costs, depreciation, and patent registration fees are all directly quantifiable and tangible.
Brand equity and social impact cannot be directly measured in monetary terms; they add long-term value but cannot be assigned a monetary value and are therefore intangible.
____________financing allow the investors to release funds in phases based on milestone achievement, reducing exposure to failure risk while incentivizing entrepreneur to meet strategic goals.
Mezzanine financing is a hybrid, subordinated debt-equity instrument that bridges the gap between senior debt and equity, typically used by mature, mid-to-late-stage companies for growth, acquisitions, or restructuring.
Locking down financing involves securing specific terms on loans or investments to mitigate risk
Staged Financing is known for the risk mitigation it offers because by releasing funds in stages (e.g., seed, Series A, B, C), VCs can stop funding if a project is underperforming, preventing further losses. Hence, it is the right answer.
Look-up is not a type of financing.
Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ideation is about creating fresh ideas.
Concept development involves defining value propositions and business models.
Implementation involves translating ideas into prototypes and tangible items.
Commercialisation is the launch of a product into the market.
And, these steps are followed in the particular order given above.
According to schumpeter, the entrepreneur is primarily a-
Joseph Schumpeter defined the entrepreneur as an innovator and a "disruptive force" who drives economic development by carrying out "new combinations". Instead of just managing, the Schumpeterian entrepreneur breaks the stationary, circular flow of economic activity through creative destruction, introducing new products, methods, markets, or organisational structures. These attributes are those of an innovator; hence, innovator is the correct choice.
Design thinking does $$\underline{not}$$ involve the following
A. Test
B. Empathize
C. Incubation
D. Brain Storming
E. Prototyping
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The standard steps of the design thinking process, by definition, are- ideate, define, test, prototype and empathise.
So here, brainstorming and incubation do not come.
Brainstorming is part of the ideation process itself; hence, it is not a separate step.
Incubation is a later stage of structured support to enable growth and is not part of the design thinking process.
Entrepreneurs are called as 'agents of change', because-
Entrepreneurs identify a market need and take the associated risks to solve the problem. Hence, entrepreneurs are those who introduce modernisation and innovation. They do not specifically avoid risk or follow global trends.
Given below are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion [A] and the other is labelled as Reason [R].
Assertion [A]: Entrepreneurs are innovators.
Reason [R] : They convert new ideas into commercially viable products.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:
Entrepreneurs are innovators, and innovation is a fresh idea that is developed into a viable product or service that can generate revenue. Hence, both the assertion and the reasons are correct, and the reason appropriately explains the assertion.
Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
NABARD is the National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development, and hence, the right match for NABARD is rural development.
Atal Innovation Mission was launched to support grass-roots and social innovation and incubation.
Entrepreneurial development programs are for self-employment and the growth of small-scale ventures.
India permits 100% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in Single Brand Retail Trading (SBRT) under the automatic route, allowing foreign entities to own and operate stores without prior government approval.
Social or environmental spillover effects beyond direct financial returns of a venture can be best termed as_________.
Externalities are costs or benefits arising from economic activity (production or consumption) that affect third parties who did not choose to be involved. Hence, social or environmental spillover effects can be termed as externalities.
Ex ante analysis involves forecasting future synergies—such as cost savings from shared resources or revenue growth from cross-selling—before a merger or project begins.
Startups face intense margin pressures due to rising production costs and fierce competition, forcing them to focus on optimising gross and operating margins.
To combat this, they leverage synergies through strategic partnerships, collaborative ecosystems, and resource sharing.
Which of the following entities is responsible for coordinating entrepreneurship policy in India?
The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, drives India's entrepreneurship policy primarily through the Startup India initiative launched in 2016.
The quality of entrepreneur to recover quickly from failure can be discribed as _________.
Avoidance refers to the tendency to skip or ignore certain aspects to create a sense of comfort.
Resilience refers to quickly recovering from setbacks and getting into action mode; hence, it is the correct choice.
Agility refers to the ability to adjust, move or think quickly.
Leadership involves motivating and guiding individuals toward a common goal.
The strategic advantage of bootstrapping in entrepreneurial finance is-
Bootstrapping refers to launching and growing a business or project using only personal savings and operating revenue, without relying on external funding like venture capital or bank loans. It signifies self-sufficiency, financial discipline, and the retention of full control. Hence, it indicates financial discipline and validates the business before external funding.
It decreases the control dilution, so A is incorrect.
Bootstrapping is unrelated to accounting standards.
Bootstrapping does not directly facilitate negotiation.
"Make in India" focuses on:
Make in India refers to the country’s focus on domestic manufacturing and the related incentives.
Launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on September 25, 2014, Make in India is a major national initiative aimed at transforming India into a global design and manufacturing hub. The initiative aims to boost the manufacturing sector's contribution to GDP to 25%, create 100 million additional jobs, and encourage both domestic and foreign companies to produce in India.
Which of the following pair of words given in options would, respectively, fill the blanks correctly in the statement given below.
"Ambidexterity theory in innovation strategy requires successful entrepreneurs to simultaneously explore __________ opportunities while exploiting __________ resources."
Let’s understand the essence of the sentence to fill in the blanks. Ambidexterity refers to the ability to perform two different tasks simultaneously. Therefore, we can assess that the sentence must be talking about doing two different things simultaneously.
Option B fits best here, exploring new opportunities while exploiting existing resources.
Option A: Human resources is not a good fit.
Market opportunities and exploiting natural resources is not something that a theory would recommend.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Venture capital funds should always specialize narrowly in a single sector to maximise returns.
Statement II: Diversification across industries and stages helps venture capitalists to manage portfolio risk, while maintaining strategic focus.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
To maximise returns, diversification is recommended, as it balances risk and exposure, whereas specialising in a narrow sector can increase risk and reduce returns.
So statement 1 is incorrect.
Diversification across industries and stages helps manage risk and returns, which is correct.
Which of the following provides incubation support in India?
The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) provides extensive support for establishing and upgrading world-class incubators, offering up to INR 10 Crores in grant-in-aid over 3-5 years for capital and operational expenses. Key initiatives include Atal Incubation Centres (AICs) for new setups and Scale-up support for existing ones, aimed at fostering sector-specific startups in areas such as health, clean tech, and AI.
A startup in India in early stage funding under SIDBI SMILE scheme must primarily show
The SIDBI SMILE (Soft Loan Fund for Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises) scheme supports MSMEs in manufacturing and service sectors, with a strong focus on 25 "Make in India" sectors. It targets new startups and existing businesses for expansion, modernisation, technology upgrades, and equipment finance.
It is for new and small businesses, so there is no focus on industrialisation or export prospects, and high collateral security is not expected, as these are not extremely capital-intensive loans. The SMILE scheme offers quasi-loans.
An entrepreneur who can contribute to combine technologies, knowledge, market understanding and resource limitations to create new value demonstrates-
Entrepreneurial Orientation (EO) refers to the strategy-making processes, methods, and practices that companies use to act entrepreneurially, focusing on innovation, risk-taking, and proactiveness to create competitive advantages.
Managerial efficiency is a quality specific to managers.
Strategic intention refers to the intent to deploy a strategy to the tasks at hand.
Innovative cognition refers to the application of fundamental mental processes (such as memory retrieval, conceptual combination, and analogical thinking) to existing knowledge structures in order to generate new, original, and valuable ideas or products.
Hence, entrepreneurial orientation is the right choice.
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