If the amount left at start of 2014 is 10000 then Amount withdrawn in 2013=Amount accumulated over 2013 = 100X.
Hence, Amount withdrawn every year = 100X. So, Y = $$\frac{100X}{10000+100X}$$ = $$\frac{X}{100+X}$$ < X
Alternate approach:
At the beginning of 2010, Ajay has 10,000. Let us take this as '10k' for ease of calculation.
Let y = (Y/100) where Y is the %value withdrawn every time.
At the end of 2010, Ajay has $$10k\left(1+\frac{x}{100}\right)$$
At the beginning of 2011, he has $$10k\left(1+\frac{x}{100}\right)-y\left(10k\left(1+\frac{x}{100}\right)\right)$$
This can be simplified as $$10k\left(1+\frac{x}{100}\right)\left(1-y\right)$$
At the end of 2011, he will have $$10k\left(1+\frac{x}{100}\right)^2\left(1-y\right)$$
Similarly, at the start of 2012, he will take $$10k\left(1+\frac{x}{100}\right)^2\left(1-y\right)^2$$ for his investment
and at the end, he will have $$10k\left(1+\frac{x}{100}\right)^3\left(1-y\right)^2$$
In the same way, at the start of 2013, he will take (1-y) times his
previous value which means that by the end of 2013
$$10k\left(1+\frac{x}{100}\right)^4\left(1-y\right)^3$$
This means that at the start of 2014 he will have (1-y) times the
previous value= $$10k\left(1+\frac{x}{100}\right)^4\left(1-y\right)^4$$
It is mentioned in the question that this value is equal to 10k
On equating this, we get:
$$10k\left(1+\frac{x}{100}\right)^4\left(1-y\right)^4=10k$$
We can further simplify this to: $$\left(1+\frac{x}{100}\right)\left(1-y\right)=1$$
$$1=\frac{1}{\left(1-y\right)}-\frac{x}{100}$$
On rearranging the terms, we get: $$y=\frac{x}{x+100}$$
This value of y is definitely lower than x.
Hence we can deduce that x>y.