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There is a function $$f(x)$$, such that $$f(0) = 1$$ and $$f'(0) = -1$$ and $$f(x)$$ is positive for all values of $$x$$. Then,
$$f"(x) < 0$$ for all $$x$$
$$-1 < f" (x) < 0$$ for all $$x$$
$$-2 < f"(x) < -1$$ for all $$x$$
None of the Above
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