Number of kurtis (linen and cotton) sold by store D is what percent more than the number of linen kurtis sold by store B?
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Study the pie chart and table and answer the questions
Distribution of total no. of Kurtis (cotton and linen) sold by six different stores in 2016, where total kurtis sold are 84,000.
Number of kurtis (linen and cotton) sold by store D is what percent more than the number of linen kurtis sold by store B?
Number of kurtis (linen and cotton) sold by store D = 10080
number of linen kurtis sold by store B = 8400
$$\frac{\left(10080-8400\right)}{8400}=\frac{1680}{8400}=\frac{1}{5}=20\%$$
What is the difference between average number of linen kurtis sold by stores D and E together and average number of cotton kurtis sold by the same stores together?
The number of linen kurtis sold by stores D and E together = 6300+13440 = 19740
The average is 9870.
The number of cotton kurtis sold by stores D and E together = 3780+10080 = 13860
The average is 6930.
The difference = 9870 - 6930 = 2940
What is the respective ratio between number of kurtis (linen and cotton) sold by store C and number of linen kurtis sold by store F?
Ratio between number of kurtis (linen and cotton) sold by store C and number of linen kurtis sold by store F = 6720:8232 = 40:49
The graphs of ax + by = c, dx+ey = f will be,
(A) Parallel if the system has no solution.
(B) Coincident if the system has finite number of solutions.
(C) Intersecting if the system has two solutions
(D) Intersecting if the system has only one solution
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) Parallel if the system has no solution: True. If the two lines are parallel, they do not intersect, implying the system of equations has no solution. This occurs when the slopes of the lines are equal but their intercepts differ.
(D) Intersecting if the system has only one solution: True. If the lines intersect at exactly one point, the system has a unique solution. This happens when the lines have different slopes.
(B) Coincident if the system has a finite number of solutions: Incorrect. If the lines are coincident, the system has infinitely many solutions, not a finite number.
(C) Intersecting if the system has two solutions: Incorrect. Two linear equations can intersect at only one point, meaning the system cannot have two solutions.
The nature of the solutions depends on how the lines relate geometrically:
Parallel lines → No solution (A is correct).
Intersecting lines → Unique solution (D is correct).
Lines cannot intersect at more than one point, ruling out C, and coincident lines lead to infinitely many solutions, ruling out B.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C.
A container is filled with liquid, 6 part of which are water and 10 part milk. How much of the mixture must be drawn off and replaced with water, so that the mixture may be half water and half milk?
Given that currently container has 6 parts of water and 10 parts of milk.
Assume the volume of water to be $$6x$$ and that of milk to be $$10x$$
So, the volume of the container is $$16x$$.
Assume we take out $$y$$ litre of mixture and replace it with water
So, the resultant mixture will have
$$\left(6x-\dfrac{6x}{16x}\times y+y\right)$$ water and
$$\left(10x-\dfrac{10x}{16x}\times y\right)$$ milk
Given the volume of water is half of the container i.e. $$8x$$
So, $$\left(10x-\dfrac{10x}{16x}\times y\right)=8x$$
$$10x-\dfrac{5}{8}y=8x$$
or, $$y=\dfrac{16x}{5}$$
In terms of container volume
$$\dfrac{y}{16x}=\dfrac{\dfrac{16x}{5}}{16x}=\dfrac{1}{5}$$
Hence, the answer is Option C
There are two numbers which are greater than 21 and their LCM and HCF are 3003 and 21 respectively. What is the sum of these numbers?
We are given that the HCF of two numbers is 21. Let the numbers be X, and Y. Then X and Y can be written as,
X = 21a and Y = 21b where a and b are coprimes.
We know that,
product of the numbers = LCM * HCF
X * Y = 3003 * 21
21a * 21b = 3003 * 21
a * b = 143
a * b = 11 * 13
There are two possibilities for (a,b) with a and b as coprimes, one being (1, 143) and the other being (11, 13). We cannot take (1, 143) because, in this case, one of the numbers would be 21, but we are given that both numbers are greater than 21. So, the numbers X and Y are 21 * 11 and 21 * 13, which are 231 and 273. So, the sum of the numbers = 231 + 273 = 504.
Therefore, the correct answer is option A.
Match List I with List II :
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Discount is always calculated on the marked price or the regular price.
A: Regular price = 65, Sale price = 55
Discount = 10
Discount % = $$\dfrac{10}{65}=15.38\%$$
B: Regular price = 60, Sale price = 50
Discount = 10
Discount % = $$\dfrac{10}{60}=16.66\%$$
C: Regular price = 70, Sale price = 50
Discount = 20
Discount % = $$\dfrac{20}{70}=28.57\%$$
(Note: The correct discount percentage should be 28.57%, however, in actual exam, the correct option given was 14.29%)
D: Regular price = 75, Sale price = 65
Discount = 10
Discount % = $$\dfrac{10}{75}=13.33\%$$
In terms of percentage profit, arrange the following transactions in decreasing order.
(A) Cost price : ₹36, Profit: ₹17
(B) Cost price : ₹50, Profit : ₹24
(C) Cost price : ₹40, Profit : ₹19
(D) Cost price : ₹60, Profit : ₹29
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Percentage profit = $$\dfrac{\Pr ofit}{Cost\ \Pr ice}\times100$$
(A) Cost price : ₹36, Profit: ₹17
Percentage profit = $$\dfrac{17}{36}\times100$$ = 47.22%
(B) Cost price : ₹50, Profit : ₹24
Percentage profit = $$\dfrac{24}{50}\times100$$ = 48%
(C) Cost price : ₹40, Profit : ₹19
Percentage profit = $$\dfrac{19}{40}\times100$$ = 47.5%
(D) Cost price : ₹60, Profit : ₹29
Percentage profit = $$\dfrac{29}{60}\times100$$ = 48.33%
Thus, percentage profits are in this sequence D > B > C > A
A Glass Jar contains 1 Red, 3 Green, 2 Blue and 4 Yellow marbles. If a single marble is chosen then Match List I with List II :
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A glass jar contains 1 red, 3 green, 2 blue and 4 yellow marbles.
If a single marble is chosen at random from the jar, the probability of getting a yellow marble =$$\frac{\text{no of yellow marbles}}{\text{Total no of mables}}$$= $$\frac{4}{10}$$
Probability of getting a green marble = $$\frac{\text{no of green marbles}}{\text{Total no of mables}}$$ = $$\frac{3}{10}$$
Probability of getting either a yellow or a green marble = $$\frac{\text{no of yellow or green marbles}}{\text{Total no of mables}}$$ = $$\frac{4+3}{10}$$ = $$\frac{7}{10}$$
Probability of getting either a red or a yellow marble = $$\frac{\text{no of yellow or red marbles}}{\text{Total no of mables}}$$ = $$\frac{4+1}{10}$$ = $$\frac{5}{10}$$
(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
Ice-cream, completely filled in a cylinder of diameter 35 cm and height 32 cm, is to be served by completely filling identical disposable cones of diameter 4 cm and height 7 cm. The maximum number of cones that can be used in this way is
We know the volume of a cylinder of radius $$r$$ and height $$h$$ is $$\pi r^2h$$
Given D = 35 cm, so $$r=17.5$$ cm
Also, $$h=32$$ cm
So, Volume = $$\pi r^2h=\pi\ \left(17.5\right)^2\times32\ cm^3$$
We know that the volume of a cone of radius $$r$$ and height $$h$$ is $$\dfrac{1}{3}\pi r^2h$$
Given the diameter of cone = 4 cm, so the radius = 2 cm
Height = 7 cm
So, the volume of the cone is $$\dfrac{1}{3}\pi r^2h=\dfrac{1}{3}\pi\left(2\right)^2\times7$$
To find the maximum number of cones that can be used, divide the volume of the cylinder by the volume of a cone
Max cones = $$\dfrac{\pi\left(17.5\right)^2\times32}{\dfrac{1}{3}\pi\left(2\right)^2\times7}=1050$$
Hence, the answer is 1050.
3 men and 18 women together take 2 days to complete a piece of work. How many days will 9 women alone take to complete the piece of work; if 6 men alone can complete the piece of work in 3 days?
Let the work done by 1 man and 1 woman in 1 day, m and w, respectively.
It is given that 3 men and 18 women together take 2 days to complete a piece of work.
Total work = (3m+18w)*2
6 men alone can complete the piece of work in 3 days = 6m*3 = 18m
Work done is the same for both cases.
So, 18m = 6m+36w
12m = 36w
m = 3w
Total work = 18m = 18*3w = 54w
Therefore, 9 women will complete the work in x days. = 9w*x = 54w
Thus, x = 6 days.
Given below are two statements :
Statement I: If two chords XY and ZT of a circle intersects internally at point P, then PX - PY = PZ - PT
Statement II: If two chords XY and ZT of a circle intersect internally at point P, then PXZ and PTY are similar triangles.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Statement I: If two chords XY and ZT of a circle intersects internally at point P, then PX - PY = PZ - PT
There is no such theorem since the length of XY and ZT can be different. Let's take any random example:
Here, we can clearly say PX - PY < PZ - PT
Hence, this statement is not true.
Statement II: If two chords XY and ZT of a circle intersect internally at point P, then PXZ and PTY are similar triangles.
This statement is correct. When two chords intersect inside a circle, triangles formed by the intersecting chords (i.e., triangles PXZ and PTY) are indeed similar by the AA (Angle-Angle) similarity criterion. This happens because:
∠XPZ = ∠TPY (vertically opposite angles)
Now, if I join XT, the triangles formed will be XZT and XYT. Hence, the triangle formed on the same base has third angles equal. With this, we can say, Angle XZT = Angle XYT
Therefore, by the Angle-Angle (AA) similarity criterion, triangle PXZ is similar to triangle PTY.
So, the correct answer is: Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
If a% of a + b% of b = 2% of ab, then what percent of a is b?
$$\dfrac{a}{100}\times a+\dfrac{b}{100}\times b\ =\ \dfrac{2}{100}\times ab$$
$$a^2+b^2=2ab$$
$$\left(a-b\right)^2=0$$
a = b
Thus, a is 100% of b.
Given below are two statements :
Statement I: The perimeter of a triangle is greater than the sum of its three medians.
Statement II: In any triangle ABC, if D is any point on BC, then AB + BC + CA > 2 AD.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Statement I: The perimeter of a triangle is greater than the sum of its three medians.
This is true. In a triangle:
The medians connect a vertex to the midpoint of the opposite side, dividing the triangle into two smaller triangles of equal area.
The length of each median is always less than the sum of the two sides it connects (triangle inequality).
Therefore, the sum of the three medians is always less than the perimeter of the triangle.
Statement II: In any triangle ABC, if D is any point on BC, then AB + BC + CA > 2AD.
This is true as well. By the triangle inequality:
For the triangle formed by
AD, AB, and BD, we have
AB+BD>AD.
Similarly, for the triangle formed by
AD, AC, and CD, we have
AC+CD>AD.
Adding these inequalities gives
AB+AC+BD+CD>2AD.
Since
BD+CD=BC, we conclude
AB+AC+BC>2AD.
Statement I relies on the fact that medians are always shorter than the sum of the sides they span.
Statement II is a direct result of the triangle inequality applied to segments involving AD, proving its validity.
Therefore, the correct answer is option A.
A player can take a maximum of 4 chances to hit a bottle with a flying disc. The probability of hitting the bottle at the first, second, third and fourth shots are 0.1, 0.2, 0.35 and 0.45 respectively. What is the probability that the player hits the bottle with the flying disc?
The probability he hits the disc = Probability of hitting on any of the four shots
P = (Hitting of 1st) + (Not hitting on 1st shot*Hitting on 2nd shot) + (Not hitting on 1st and 2nd shot*Hitting on 3rd shot) + (Not hitting on 1st, 2nd and 3rd shot*Hitting on 4th shot)
We know that the Probability of not hitting at a shot = 1 - The probability of hitting the bottle at that shot
$$P = 0.1+\left(0.9\times0.2\right)+\left(0.9\times0.8\times0.35\right)+\left(0.9\times0.8\times0.65\times0.45\right)$$
$$P=0.1+0.18+0.252+0.2106$$
$$P=0.7426$$
Hence, the answer is Option C
A vessel of 160 L is filled with milk and water. 70% of milk and 30% of water is taken out of the vessel. It is found out that the vessel is vacated by 55%, then the quantity of milk and water in the original mixture is
The total volume of the mixture is 160 L and 70% of the milk and 30% of the water is removed. With this, 55% of the vessel is vacated, so 45% of the original mixture remains, which is 72 L.
Let the amount of Milk in the original mixture be $$x$$ liters so the amount of water in the vessel would be $$160-x$$ liters.
Milk removed = 70% of $$x$$ = $$0.7x$$
Water removed = 30% of $$160-x$$ = 0.3(160−x).
Remaining milk: x − 0.7x = 0.3x
Remaining water: 160 − x − 0.3(160−x) = 0.7(160−x)
The remaining mixture is 72 liters.
0.3x + 0.7(160−x) = 72
Upon solving, we get, x = 100
Therefore, the amount of Milk is 100 liters and the amount of water = 160 - 100 = 60 liters.
There are 10 stations on a railway line. The number of different journey tickets that are require by the authorities , is
There are 10 stations on the railway line. A journey ticket is for traveling between two different stations, where the order matters (i.e., traveling from station A to B is different from traveling from B to A).
For each starting station, there are 9 possible destinations (since you can't travel to the same station). Since there are 10 possible starting stations, the total number of different journey tickets is $$10\times9=90$$
Which two figures will have same area?
(A) Circle with diameter of 14 cm.
(B) Rectangle with length 12 cm and breadth 10 cm.
(C) Rectangle with length 14 cm and breadth 11 cm.
(D) Square with side 12 cm.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. Assume that $$\pi = \frac{22}{7}$$
Area of circle = $$\pi r^2$$
Area of rectangle = $$L\times B$$
Area of Square = $$S^2$$
(A) Circle with a diameter of 14 cm = $$\pi 7^2$$ = $$49\pi\ $$ = 49*22/7 = 154$$cm^2$$
(B) Rectangle with length 12 cm and breadth 10 cm = 12*10 = 120$$cm^2$$
(C) Rectangle with length 14 cm and breadth 11 cm = 14*11 = 154$$cm^2$$
(D) Square with side 12 cm = 12*12 = 144$$cm^2$$
Thus, A and C have the same area.
Arrange the following surds in increasing order :
(A) $$\sqrt[3]{2}$$
(B) $$\sqrt{3}$$
(C) $$\sqrt[4]{5}$$
(D) $$\sqrt[6]{7}$$
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
We are given the surds, $$\sqrt[3]{2}$$, $$\sqrt{3}$$, $$\sqrt[4]{5}$$ and $$\sqrt[6]{7}$$.
The values can be written as, $$2^{\frac{1}{3}},\ 3^{\frac{1}{2}},\ 5^{\frac{1}{4}},\ 7^{\frac{1}{6}}$$ which can be rewritten as,
$$2^{\frac{8}{24}},\ 3^{\frac{12}{24}},\ 5^{\frac{6}{24}},\ 7^{\frac{4}{24}}$$.
In the above values, comparing the values of $$2^8,\ 3^{12},\ 5^6,\ 7^4$$ is enough and they can be rewritten as,
$$\left(2^4\right)^2,\ \left(3^6\right)^2,\ \left(5^3\right)^2,\ \left(7^2\right)^2\ =\ $$ $$16^2,\ 729^2,\ 125^2,\ 49^2$$
We can see that the value of A < D < C < B.
Therefore, the correct answer is option D.
Mr. Seth inherits 2505 gold coins and divides them among his three sons : Brij, Purab and Mohan in a certain ratio. Out of the total coins received by each of them, Brij sells 30 coins, Purab donates his 30 coins and Mohan loses 25 coins. Now, the ratio of gold coins with them is 46 : 41 : 34 respectively. How many coins did Purab receive from his father?
Given the ratio now is 46 : 41 : 34.
Assume the constant of the ratio to be $$x$$
So, now the coins they have are $$46x$$, $$41x$$ and $$34x$$ respectively.
Before selling/donating/losing the number of coins will be $$\left(46x+30\right)$$, $$\left(41x+30\right)$$ and $$\left(34x+25\right)$$ respectively.
We know $$46x+30+41x+30+34x+25=2505$$
$$121x=2420$$
$$x=20$$
So, the number of coins Purab received will be $$41x+30=41\times20+30=850$$
Hence, the answer is 850
Find the next term in the series
XRF, UTI, RVM, __________.
The logic for the nth term first letter of the series = previous series first letter - 3
The logic for the nth term second letter of the series = previous series second letter + 2
The logic for the nth term third letter of the series = previous series third letter + n + 1
So, the 4th term is given as,
1st letter = R - 3 = O
2nd letter = V + 2 = X
3rd letter = M + 4 + 1 = R
So, the next term of the series is OXR.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B.
'Fire' is related to 'Ashes' in the same way as 'Explosion' is related to :
The after result of fire is Ashes.
Similarly, the after result of an Explosion is Debris.
A clock is set right at 10 am. The clock gains 10 minutes in a day. What will be the true time when the watch indicates 3 pm the next day?
The clock gains 10 minutes in a day.
Therefore, the clock gains 10 minutes in 24 hours.
So, from 3 PM the next day to 10 AM the previous day, time passed = 29 hours.
We know that in 24 hours, the clock gains 10 minutes.
So, in 1 hour, the clock will gain 10/24 minutes.
And, in 5 hours, the clock will gain = 50/24 minutes = 2.08 minutes approx.
Hence, total time gained = 10+2.8 = 12.08 minutes
So, the true time when the watch indicates 3 pm = 3 pm - 12.08 = 2 pm 48 minutes (approx)
A and B are twins. B's sister is C. D is the husband of C. A's mother is E. E is wife of F. How is F related to D?
A and B are twins. And B’s sister is C. So, A, B and C are siblings.
D is the husband of C. A’s mother is E. This means E mother of A, B, C.
E is the wife of F. So, F is father of A, B, C.
Therefore, F is D’s father-in-law.
Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement:
The entire north India, including Delhi remained 'power less' the whole day of $$19^{th}$$ December as the northern grid supplying electricity to seven states collapsed yet again.
Assumptions :
I. The northern grid had collapsed earlier.
II. The grid system of providing electricity to a group of states is an ineffective type of power supply system.
I. The northern grid had collapsed earlier.
II. The grid system of providing electricity to a group of states is an ineffective type of power supply system.
Hence, the answer is Only assumption I is implicit.
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Tides indicate the regular and periodic rise and fall in the sea level.
Reasons (R) : Tides are caused by the gravitational pull of the moon and sea level.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Assertion(A): True. Tides indeed indicate the regular and periodic rise and fall in the sea level, which is a well-documented natural phenomenon.
Reason (R): False. While tides are caused by the gravitational pull of the moon and the sun, the reference to "sea level" as a cause is incorrect. The moon's gravitational pull plays the most significant role, and the sun's gravitational pull contributes as well. Sea level, however, is not a causal factor but rather the feature affected by tides.
The gravitational forces of the moon and the sun act on Earth's water bodies, causing tides. The sea level rises and falls as a result of these forces; it does not itself cause the tides. Thus, while the assertion is correct, the reason is factually inaccurate.
We can say that (A) is true but (R) is false
Therefore the correct answer is option C.
The following question consists of a statement and argument I and II. Choose the best option.
Statement : Should judiciary be independent of the executive.
Arguments: I. Yes, This would help curb the unlawful activities of the executive.
II. No, the executive would not be able to take bold measures.
Argument I: Yes, an independent judiciary can make sure that the executive does not misuse its power, thereby curbing unlawful activities and upholding the rule of law. This is a strong argument because an independent judiciary acts as a check on executive power, ensuring fairness and justice in society.
Argument II: No, this argument suggests that an independent judiciary might prevent the executive from taking bold or swift actions, which might be necessary in certain circumstances. However, it is flawed because an independent judiciary does not interfere with necessary government actions but ensures they are lawful and constitutional. Therefore, Argument II is weak.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and J are sitting around a circle facing the centre. C is third to the left of A. E is fourth to the right of A. D is fourth to the left of J, who is second to the right of A. F is third to the right of B. G is not an immediate neighbour of A. What is the H's position with respect to E?
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and J are sitting around a circle facing the centre. So, 9 people are sitting around a circle.
Let us draw the diagram of 9 positions in a circle.
C is third to the left of A. E is fourth to the right of A. D is fourth to the left of J, who is second to the right of A.
Placing with respect to A.
F is third to the right of B. G is not an immediate neighbour of A.
B _ _ F
The only possible configuration will be.
As G is not the immediate neighbour of A.
Hence, H will be the neighbour of A.
Hence, H is third to the left of E.
How many squares does the figure have?

There are 8 small squares.
There are three big squares.
And one more square that is formed by diagonals.
Total 8+3+1 = 12
All needles are threads, All threads are boxes. All trees are boxes.
(A) No needle is tree.
(B) Some trees are threads
(C) Some boxes are needles
(D) Some trees are needles
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) No needle is a tree.
(B) Some trees are threads.
(C) Some boxes are needles.
(D) Some trees are needles.
Hence, the answer is C only.
In a row of girl students facing north, Radhika is $$10^{th}$$ to the left of Purnima who is $$21^{st}$$ from the right end. If Monika who is $$17^{th}$$ from the left end is $$4^{th}$$ to the right of Radhika, how many students are there in the row?
There are 20 girls to the right of Purnima and 9 girls between Purnima and Radhika. Mounika is 17th from the left end and 4th to the right of Radhika. This means that there are 3 girls between Radhika and Mounika, and also, there are 12 girls to the left of Radhika.
The arrangement would be as follows,
(12 girls) (Radhika) (3 girls) (Mounika) (5 girls) (Purnima) (20 girls)
So, the total number of girls = 12 + 1 + 3 + 1 + 5 + 1 + 20 = 43 girls.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C.
At sunrise, Ajay and Vijay are having a conversation standing in front of each other. The shadow of Vijay is formed towards the right hand of Ajay. What direction is Vijay facing?
When it is sunrise: Ajay is facing north. This is because shadows cast at sunrise point west, and since Vijay's shadow is towards Ajay's right, it indicates Ajay is facing north (and Vijay would be facing south).
However, the important thing to notice is that Vijay's shadow is towards the right hand of Ajay, which, if Ajay faces north, means the shadow is pointing east (since the sun rises in the east). This aligns with the statement that the shadow is on Ajay's right.
Seeta and Geeta start moving towards each other from two places 200 m apart. After walking 40 m, Geeta turns left and goes 15 m, then she turns right and goes 25 m. She then turns right again and comes back to the road on which she had started walking. If Seeta and Geeta walk with the same speed, what is the distance between them now?
Let us assume Seeta and Geeta are at A and B initially.
Distance between A and B = 200 m.
Seeta and Geeta have the same speed.
So, their travel distance will be the same since they start together.
Seeta travels = 40+25 = 65 meters in the horizontal direction from Point A and 15+15 = 30 meters in the vertical direction.
Total distance travelled by Seeta = 65+30 = 95 meters.
Hence, Geeta also travels = 95 meters.
Since Seeta travels only 65 meters on line AB, and Geeta travels = 95 meters on line AB.
Distance between them = 200-65-95 = 40 meters.
Find the odd one among the following :
Grape : Wine, Milk : Butter, and Water : Oxygen all represent relationships where the second item is derived or produced from the first.
Death : Disease does not fit this pattern. While a disease can lead to death, death is not a product or result derived in the same way as the other pairs. Thus, this pair stands out as different in the nature of its relationship.
If RAIN is written as 66, then CLOUD is written as
We know
R - 18th letter
A - 1st letter
I - 9th letter
N - 14th letter.
Sum = 18+1+9+14 = 42
It is written as 66 or $$42+4\times2\left(4-2+1\right)=66$$
Using the same logic for CLOUD we get
C - 3rd letter
L - 12th letter
O - 15th letter
U - 21st letter
D - 4th letter
Sum = 3+12+15+21+4 = 55
So, it is written as $$55+5\times5\left(5-5+1\right)=80$$
Hence, the answer is 80.
A set of figures carrying certain characters is given below. Assuming that the characters in each set follow same pattern, find the missing character.

From the first figure, we can calculate the middle term as the difference between the sums of the opposite terms.
First figure = (101 + 15) - (35 + 43) = 116 - 78 = 38
Second figure = (48 + 184) - (56 + 34) = 232 - 90 = 142
Therefore, the correct answer is option B.
In the following number series, only one number is wrong, find out the wrong number
888, 454, 237, 128.5, 76.25, 47.125
We need to identify the pattern in the series and check if there is any inconsistency.
From 888 to 454:
888 ÷ 2 = 444 (But the next number is 454)
So, we can guess that the next number is approximately halved but with a small increase.
454 = 444 + 10
From 454 to 237:
454 ÷ 2 = 227 (But the next number is 237)
Again, we see that the number is approximately halved with a small increase.
237 = 227 + 10
From 237 to 128.5:
237 ÷ 2 = 118.5 (But the next number is 128.5)
Here, we see a similar pattern where the number is halved with an addition.
128.5 = 118.5 + 10
From 128.5 to 76.25:
128.5 ÷ 2 = 64.25 (But the next number is 76.25)
This doesn't fit the pattern of halving with a small increase.
The correct number here should be 64.25, so 76.25 is the wrong number.
From 76.25 to 47.125:
76.25 ÷ 2 = 38.125 (But the next number is 47.125)
Again, this doesn't follow the halving pattern with an increase.
If $$8^{th}$$ February, 2005 was a Tuesday, then what was the day on $$8^{th}$$ February, 2004?
Let us assume the day on $$8^{th}$$ February, 2004 is X
And, since 2004 is a leap year so, it will have one extra day = 365+1 = 366 days till 8th February, 2005
So, number of odd days = 366/7 = 2 days
So on $$8^{th}$$ February, 2005, it will be X+2 day and it is Tuesday.
Therefore, X = Sunday
Hence, on $$8^{th}$$ February, 2004 it was sunday.
Find the missing number from the given alternatives.

Here is the pattern:
(21-8)*9 = 117
(34-9)*8 =200
(?-13)*5 = 110
(?-13) = 22
? = 35
The sheet of paper shown in the figure below is folded to form a box
Choose the correct alternative which will represent the position of numbers in above diagram
We make pairs that will be opposite each other after folding
We see that
a. 1 will be opposite 2
b. 3 will be opposite 5
c. 4 will be opposite 6
Option A - 3 will be opposite 5, hence cannot be adjacent. Wrong
Option B - 4 will be opposite 6, hence cannot be adjacent. Wrong
Option C - 3 will be opposite 5, hence cannot be adjacent. Wrong
Option D - Correct
The correct position is only displayed in Option D
Pick the odd one out from the following options :
a) Go about, b) Go after, and d) Go through are phrasal verbs, where the meaning changes significantly when combined with the preposition (e.g., "Go about" means to deal with something, "Go after" means to pursue, "Go through" means to endure or experience).
c) Go fast is a literal expression, meaning to move quickly, without forming a distinct phrasal verb.
Thus, c) Go fast is the odd one out
Identify the usages of the word "PUZZLE" in the following sentence.
'The students got puzzled solving the puzzle".
The first "Puzzled" acts as a verb here, referring to the children's confusion, and the second "puzzle" works as a noun, referring to a thing or problem that has confused the children.
The word thus acts as a verb and a noun.
Therefore, Option D is the correct answer.
"An office without pay" is termed as ______________
Option D is the correct answer.
An office without pay refers to a position where someone works voluntarily or without receiving monetary compensation. The term used to describe such a position is "Honorary."
A) Salaried refers to a position with regular pay.
B) Bonded refers to being legally bound to a job, often with pay.
C) Exgratia refers to payments made voluntarily or as a favour, not regular pay.
Pick the correct option to complete the following sentence :
"The teacher never _________ in the class."
The subject "the teacher" is singular, so the verb must agree with it in the present tense. Among the options, "sleeps" is the correct conjugation for the singular subject, making "The teacher never sleeps in the class" grammatically correct.
Pick the correct option given below to replace the underlined words/ phrase in the following sentence to make it grammatically correct:
"Do you know that dressing properly for an interview can earns you those brownie points which will help you get that dream job"?
Do you know that dressing properly for an interview can earn you those brownie points which will help you get that dream job?
This is the grammatically correct sentence."Earn" is used in the present tense, while "earns" is used in the third person singular form of the verb.
Pick the word opposite in meaning: to the word "DOLEFUL".
Doleful means something sad, or full of grief.
The direct opposite of this would be cheerful, which means happy.
Deceitful means dishonest or misleading, which is unrelated to "doleful."
Beautiful refers to something pleasing to the senses or mind and does not oppose "doleful."
Mournful is synonymous with "doleful" as it also means sad or full of sorrow.
Therefore, Option A is the correct answer.
Pick the correct passive form of the following sentence :
"He urged the council to reduce the rates".
Option D is the correct answer.
The object of the active sentence becomes the subject of the passive sentence. In the active voice, "the council" is the object. In the passive voice, it becomes the subject.
The verb is changed to its passive form. The active verb "urged" is transformed into the passive form "was urged."
Thus, the sentence "He urged the council to reduce the rates" in passive voice becomes "The council was urged to reduce the rates."
In the Below passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Find out the appropriate option in each case to replace the given numbers.
Comprehension:
This particular scepticism of the reach of reasoning (I)____________ not yield - nor (as Appiah makes clear) is it intended to yield - any ground for not using reason to the extent one can, in (II)___________ the idea of justice or any other notion of social relevance, such as identity. Nor does it undermine the case for our trying to persuade each other to scrutinize our respective conclusions. It is also important to note that what may appear to others as clear examples of 'unreason' may not always be exactly that. Reasoned discussion can accommodate conflicting positions that may appear to others to be 'unreasoned' prejudice, without this being quite the case. There is no compulsion, as is sometimes (III)___________ to eliminate every reasoned alternative except exactly one.
Pick the appropriate replacement for (II)
The word "in" is a preposition, and prepositions are typically followed by a gerund (the -ing form of a verb).
Option A: "Persue" is the base form of the verb. However, prepositions like "in" are not followed by the base form of a verb
Option B: "Persues" is the third-person singular form of the verb, which doesn’t fit here. Verbs in their third-person singular form cannot follow a preposition like "in."
Option C: "Persuit" is a noun, and while grammatically possible, it changes the sentence's meaning. Using "pursuit" would emphasize the abstract concept of persuit, rather than the ongoing action that the context suggests.
Option D: The gerund "persuing" indicates an ongoing action or process, making "in persuing the idea of justice" a grammatically and semantically appropriate phrase, and hence would be the best fit.
Therfore, Option D is the correct answer.
Pick the appropriate replacement for (I)
The subject of the sentence is "scepticism," which is singular; the verb should also agree with this. (A) is best suited for a singular subject in the present tense.
Option D would be grammatically incorrect (used for plural subjects) and can be easily eliminated.
Option C is close, but "does" is a better overall fit, with has and "yield-nor is it intended to yield" not being coherent grammatically.
Option B is generally used with plural subjects; since the subject here is singular, this, too, can be eliminated.
Therefore, Option A is the correct answer.
Pick the appropriate replacement for (III)
The final sentence suggests an general belief about something in a passive form. In such instance base form of the verb +ed is used, generally in past tense. Which would be option C.
Options A, B and D are in different tenses and would be grammatically inappropriate to place in the blank.
Therefore, Option C is the correct answer.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: "HARDLY" can be used to say that something is just true or possible.
Statement II: "HARDLY" is a negative word and should not be used with not or other negatives.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Let us assess the statements -
Statement I: True, as "hardly" can indeed be used to indicate something is just true or possible - e.g., "There was hardly enough food for everyone."
Statement II: True, as "hardly" is a negative word and should not be used with double negatives - e.g., "I hardly found nothing" is incorrect.
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Rearrange the following sentences to get a meaningful paragraph.
(A) However, Indian girls have not matched this rate of access to education.
(B) Still the Indian girl child has been deprived of the gift, as largely girls are not considered worthy of literacy.
(C) The power of education in transforming communities is a gift that has changed India in the last few decades.
(D) India has seen a substantial increase in primary school enrolment due to the Right to Education (RTE) Act 2009
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
C starts the paragraph: It introduces the broad idea of education as a transformative gift, setting the context for the discussion.
B follows C: It narrows the focus to the disparity, stating that girls are often deprived of this gift.
D comes next: It provides a specific example of progress in education through the RTE Act, highlighting India's strides in enrolment.
A concludes: It contrasts the progress mentioned in D with the fact that Indian girls still lag behind in accessing education, completing the logical flow.
Thus, the sequence CBDA creates a coherent progression from the general importance of education to the specific challenges faced by Indian girls.
Which of the following are synonyms of the word "DELINEATE"?
(A) Depict
(B) Decepitate
(C) Describe
(D) Depricate
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
The definition or meaning of "Delineate" is as follows: describe or portray (something) precisely.
Considering this, we can say that the synonyms for this word are Depict and Describe only.
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
"I wish it were possible."
Assertion (A) : Despite the fact that the above sentence lacks subject-verb concord, as per the English Grammar, it is a syntactically correct sentence.
Reasons (R) : It is a syntactically correct sentence because in subjunctive mood (of verb) even singular subject is followed by a plural verb.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
The sentence "I wish it were possible" is syntactically correct because it uses the subjunctive mood. In English grammar, the subjunctive mood allows for singular subjects to be followed by a plural verb ("were" instead of "was") to express wishes, hypothetical scenarios, or unreal conditions. Therefore, both the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason correctly explains the assertion in this case.
Rearrange the following components to get a meaningful sentence.
(A) The Buddha
(B) of his time and
(C) dissented against the orthodoxy
(D) the eightfold path stood revealed
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Option B is the correct answer. ACBD forms the correct sequence to form a meaningful sentence
A (The Buddha) is the subject of the sentence.
C (dissented against the orthodoxy) follows logically, describing the Buddha's action.
B (of his time and) provides additional context to the orthodoxy he dissented against.
D (the eightfold path stood revealed) concludes the sentence by describing the outcome.
Match List I with List II :
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct answer here is Option B: (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Fits and starts (II): Refers to something done at intervals or irregularly.
In less than no time (III): Means very quickly, in a moment.
Once in a blue moon (IV): Indicates something that happens very rarely.
On the dot (I): Means at an appropriate or precise time.
Given below are two statements :
Statement I: "VERY" is used with adjectives, past participles used as adjectives and adverbs.
Statement II: But "VERY" is not used with past participles that have a passive meaning.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Option A is the correct answer. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Statement I: "VERY" is used to modify adjectives (e.g., very happy), past participles functioning as adjectives (e.g., very pleased), and adverbs (e.g., very quickly), which makes Statement I true.
Statement II: "VERY" cannot modify past participles with passive meanings because in such cases, the participles act as verbs rather than adjectives (e.g., very punished is incorrect), confirming Statement II is also true.
Match List I with List II :
Choose the correct answer from t he options given below :
The correct answer here is Option B: (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
Alma mater (II): Refers to one’s own old school/college.
De Jure (IV): Means something as a matter of legal right.
Ipso facto (III): Translates to "by the fact itself."
Quantum meruit (I): Refers to "reasonable value of service," often used in legal contexts where services are rendered without a prior agreement on payment.
Comprehension:
All the great religious teachers of mankind have insisted on this : that men ought not to live for themselves alone. We ought not, they have said, to spend all our time and energy in getting just what we want for ourselves, power and money and importance in the world; we ought to serve something greater than ourselves, whether a god or a cause or our fellowmen. It is by serving this something greater that men will forget themselves and so achieve happiness. This or something like it is what the great religions have taught, and it is one of the most important of the things that civilization means. It is also the hardest to learn and practise; in fact, most people have found it much too hard.
Which of the following terms is closer to the central idea of the given passage?
The central idea of the passage is Altruism because it emphasizes the importance of living for something greater than oneself, as taught by great religious teachers. The passage highlights that true happiness comes from serving others—be it a god, a cause, or fellow human beings—rather than focusing solely on personal desires like power or money. This selfless service to others aligns with the core principle of altruism: prioritizing the well-being of others over oneself.
What does the passage suggest overall?
(A) It suggests humanism as a religious practice.
(B) It holds nationalism as the most cherished sentiment in society.
(C) It holds altruism as a universal value.
(D) It holds humanism as the most important thing in human life.
(E) It puts altruism in the binary of selfishness.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Altruism as a universal value:
The passage presents altruism as a fundamental teaching of all great religions, suggesting it transcends cultural and religious boundaries and is integral to the essence of civilization. This universal emphasis establishes altruism as a shared human value.
Altruism in the binary of selfishness:
The passage contrasts altruism (serving something greater) with selfishness (seeking personal power, money, and importance). This clear opposition frames altruism and selfishness as two opposing choices, reinforcing the binary.
In Indian Constitution, Directive principles of State Policy are taken form
The word 'Blue Revolution' is associated with
Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place in the year 1919.
(B) People were agitated over the arrest of Dr. Kitchlu and Dr. Satyapal and assembled there.
(C) General O'Dyer fired at people who assembled in Jallianwala Bagh.
(D) Gandhiji Returned his knighthood in the protest.
(E) Sardar Hardayal killed General O'Dyer in London.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Who is the present Vice President of India?
Given below are two statements :
Statement I: King Ashoka was the son of Chandragupta.
Statement II: The war of Kalinga, changed the Ashoka and he became the follower of Jainism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
The first Bharat Ratna Awards were not given to
The famous instrumentalist Bismillah Khan was associated with which of the following instrument?
$$22^{nd}$$ Commonwealth Games - 2022 were held in which city of the world?
The first National Education Policy of independent India was commenced in the year
The first country of the world who legalize Euthanasia was -
Match List I with List II :
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
The youngest Prime Minister in the history of India was
Match List I with List II :

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Vitamin-A, Vitamin-B and Vitamin-C all are fat soluble vitamins.
Statement II: Vitamin-D, Vitamin-K and Vitamin-E all are water soluble vitamins.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Rudyard Kipling is the famous writer of which of the following book?
Which of the following is not a scalar Quantity?
Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) Jainism came into existence around 600 B.C. in India.
(B) There were 24 Tirthankaras in Jainism.
(C} First Tirthankar was Swami Mahavira.
(D) The last and $$24^{th}$$ Tirthankara was Rishabhadeva.
(E) Jainism accept the idea of existance of God and believe in caste system.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Arrange the following Indian Defence organization in terms of their foundation year
(A) Border Security Force (BSF)
(B) Indian Air Force (IAF)
(C) National Cadet Corps (NCC)
(D) National Security Guards (NSG)
(E) Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Given below are two statements :
Statement I: In Indus valley civilization, houses were made of Bricks.
Statement II: Indus valley civilization were not familiar with cotton.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Given below are two statements :
Statement I: The Abbreviation of ASCII is, Army standard code for information interchange.
Statement II: The abbreviation of COBOL is, computer Business oriented language.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Design thinking has following important stages. Arrange in a sequence.
(A) Define
(B) Empathize
(C) Prototype
(D) Test
(E) Ideate
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Option A is the correct answer. Correct Sequence is B → A → E → C → D
The Design Thinking process consists of the following stages in sequence:
Empathize (B): Understand the needs and perspectives of the users.
Define (A): Clearly articulate the problem based on insights gathered.
Ideate (E): Brainstorm potential solutions to the defined problem.
Prototype (C): Create tangible representations of the ideas to explore solutions.
Test (D): Test the prototypes with users to refine and improve the solution.
Critical evaluation points of Entrepreneurship Development Programmes (EDPs) are:
(A) Organisational Policies
(B) Suitable selection procedure of trainees and Faculty
(C) Quality of Technical and Vocational Education and Training
(D) Organisation associated in the EDP
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Let us evaluate the stated factors:
A: Effective organisational policies guide the strategic direction and alignment of EDPs with developmental objectives.
B: Proper selection ensures that the right candidates and qualified instructors participate, improving program relevance and effectiveness.
C: High-quality training equips participants with practical skills and knowledge for entrepreneurial success.
D: The organisation associated with the EDP may influence its effectiveness, but it is not a critical factor for evaluating the program’s success. The primary focus should remain on internal factors like policies, selection, and training quality.
We observe that A, B and C are key factors that need to be considered. Hence, Option C is the correct answer.
Following are the reasons of the success of entrepreneurial ventures
(A) Effective Market Research
(B) Good Financial Control
(C) Good Management
(D) Caste of Entrepreneur
(E) Good Idea
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
The correct answer is A, B, C, and E, as these are critical factors for the success of entrepreneurial ventures:
Effective Market Research (A): Understanding market needs, target audience, and competition is vital to identify opportunities and tailor offerings accordingly.
Good Financial Control (B): Proper financial management ensures optimal allocation of resources, cash flow stability, and the ability to adapt to market challenges.
Good Management (C): Strong leadership and efficient management drive strategic decision-making, team performance, and operational success.
Good Idea (E): A strong and innovative idea is the foundation of any entrepreneurial venture, providing the value proposition that attracts customers and investors.
The caste of the entrepreneur (D) is irrelevant in determining business success. Success is driven by skills, strategies, and execution, not by socio-cultural factors.
Entrepreneurial success is rooted in actionable factors like market research, financial control, management skills, and innovative ideas (A, B, C, and E). Attributes like caste (D) do not impact the ability to create or grow a successful venture and have no bearing on the universal principles of entrepreneurship.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C.
Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Dividing the market in small niches is known as targeting.
Statement II: Segmentation and targeting are essential components of understanding the market and tap it effectively.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Statement I: Dividing the market into small niches is not targeting. Instead, dividing the market into small niches is segmentation. Targeting comes after segmentation, where the marketer selects the specific segments to focus on. So, Statement I is false.
Statement II: Segmentation and targeting are indeed essential components of understanding and tapping the market effectively. Segmentation helps in identifying different customer groups, while targeting helps in selecting the right group to focus marketing efforts on. Statement II is true.
Handson learning can be best taught through.
(A) Case study analysis
(B) Entrepreneurial Audit
(C) Entrepreneurial profiling
(D) Class discussion
(E) Focused group discussion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
The correct answers are A, B, and C because they all involve practical and hands-on approaches to learning:
Case Study Analysis (A): This helps students engage with real-world situations, understand problems, and come up with solutions. It’s an effective way to apply theoretical knowledge in a practical context.
Entrepreneurial Audit (B): This involves examining real businesses to understand their strengths, weaknesses, and operations. It gives learners direct exposure to how businesses work in practice.
Entrepreneurial Profiling (C): By studying the journeys and strategies of successful entrepreneurs, students gain real insights into decision-making, challenges, and the mindset required to succeed.
All three methods focus on active learning and practical application, making them ideal for hands-on learning.
Shaadi.com, an online match making service is an example of following start up model
Shaadi.com, as an online matchmaking service, primarily operates on a subscription-based business service model, where users pay a fee to access premium features or services such as enhanced profile visibility, direct messaging, or personalized matchmaking assistance. This model generates revenue by charging users for ongoing access to its services.
Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Business ideation is important aspect of venture creation.
Statement II: Conversation that happens in an elevator is known as elevator pitch.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Statement I: Business ideation is important aspect of venture creation.
This statement is true. Business ideation refers to the process of coming up with and developing ideas for a new business or product. It is a critical step in venture creation because without a solid idea, it's difficult to build a successful business. Business ideation involves identifying market needs, potential solutions, and the core vision for the business.
Statement II: Conversation that happens in an elevator is known as elevator pitch
The elevator pitch is not simply any conversation that happens in an elevator. It specifically refers to a brief, persuasive speech that is designed to spark interest in a person, idea, product, or project. The term "elevator pitch" comes from the idea that the pitch should be short enough to be delivered during a brief elevator ride—typically lasting between 30 seconds to 2 minutes. Hence, not true.
Hence, Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Along with goal setting, major concerns for a growing enterprise are
(A) Time management.
(B) Finding, retaining and motivating able human resource
(C) Finding new financers
(D) Diversification and export potential
(E) Performance measurement and incentives
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(C) Finding new financers
(D) Diversification and export potential
These are not mandatory for a thriving business that is growing, this is probably applicable for a certain fraction of businesses.
Whereas the other three options, (A), (B), (E) are all essential for growing enterprises.
Which of the following factors are not relevant for judging the adequacy of market?
Labour market indirectly affect market adequacy by influencing production capabilities, an hence are useful in judging how adequate is the market.
Domestic and export demand are similarly useful in giving an idea of how big the market is.
While competitors and their market shares provide insight into the competitive landscape, they do not directly determine the adequacy of the market itself. Hence is not a relevant factor.
Therefore, Option D is the correct answer.
Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Changing competition in market place is the primary reason for govt involvement in business globally.
Statement II: Increase in cost of production is the primary reason for govt in business globally.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Option C is the correct answer. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I: Changing competition in the marketplace can indeed drive government involvement in businesses globally. Governments may intervene to ensure fair competition, prevent monopolies, protect consumer interests, and promote economic stability. This makes Statement I correct.
Statement II: While an increase in production costs might lead businesses to seek government support (e.g., subsidies or incentives), it is not the primary reason for government involvement. Governments typically get involved to regulate the market, ensure equitable distribution of resources, or address market failures, not just to manage production costs. This makes Statement II incorrect.
Diffusion of Innovation theory is associated with
E.M. Rogers developed the Diffusion of Innovation theory, which identifies five key adopter categories: innovators, early adopters, early majority, late majority, and laggards. The theory also describes factors such as the innovation's relative advantage, compatibility, complexity, trialability, and observability, which influence its diffusion.
Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) SMILE loans are aimed pursue growth opportunities
(B) SMILE loans are aimed to pay for the earlier loan
(C) SMILE loans are available to both manufacturing and services organisations.
(D) SMILE loans are aimed at setting upstate of the Art manufacturing infrastructure for MSME
(E) SMILE loans are aimed at meeting the consumption needs of farm-based entrepreneurs.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
The correct answer is A, C, and D, as these align with the objectives of SMILE (SIDBI Make in India Loan for Enterprises) loans.
(A) SMILE loans are aimed at pursuing growth opportunities:
SMILE loans are designed to help businesses, particularly in the MSME sector, seize growth opportunities by providing funding for expansion and modernization.
(C) SMILE loans are available to both manufacturing and services organizations:
The scheme supports enterprises in both manufacturing and service sectors, ensuring broad applicability across industries.
(D) SMILE loans are aimed at setting up state-of-the-art manufacturing infrastructure for MSMEs:
The program focuses on funding projects that involve advanced manufacturing setups to enhance productivity and competitiveness.
(B) SMILE loans are aimed to pay for earlier loans: Incorrect, as SMILE loans are not designed for refinancing or debt repayment but for new investments.
(E) SMILE loans are aimed at meeting the consumption needs of farm-based entrepreneurs: Incorrect, as SMILE loans are not for consumption or farm-based needs but for MSME infrastructure development and growth.
SMILE loans specifically cater to the "Make in India" initiative, supporting MSMEs in manufacturing and services with funding for new investments and infrastructure upgrades (A, C, and D). The other options (B and E) misrepresent the purpose of the program, which is not for refinancing or meeting consumption needs.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B.
The legal term for brand is
The legal term for a brand is Trademark.
A trademark is a legally recognized symbol, design, word, or combination of these that identifies and distinguishes the products or services of one business from others. It provides legal protection to the brand, ensuring that no one else can use a similar mark that could cause confusion in the marketplace.
Match List I with List II :
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Plant and Machinery Records is related to Technical feasibility.
Profit Statements is related to Financial feasibility.
Creativity and Innovation is related to Business ideation.
Empathize is related to Design thinking.
Bottom line measures of social performance for an entrepreneur include the following
(A) Unemployment rate
(B) Relative Poverty
(C) GDP Growth
(D) Average Commute Time
(E) Illiteracy Rate
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
An entrepreneur's bottom-line measures of social performance should reflect their impact on society and community well-being, such as employment, poverty reduction, and education.
Of the given options, bottom lines measures of social performance would include:
A: Unemployment rate- Entrepreneurs create jobs and reduce unemployment.
B: Relative Poverty - Entrepreneurship can help reduce poverty by increasing income.
D: Average Commute Time - If an entrepreneur's business improves transportation or work-life balance, it can impact commute times.
E: Illiteracy Rate - Entrepreneurs may contribute to education and skills development, reducing illiteracy.
GDP growth rate is not directly a social measure. It is a broad economic indicator of the country.
Therefore, Option A) A,B,D and E only
'Entrepreneur' means
To maintain consistent business through out the year, an entrepreneur may
Multiple businesses at a time can be risky and divert the attention of the entrepreneur leading to substandard output.
Similarly, a business and plan and marketing strategy is basic to a company's functioning, and it is mandatory to do it, it does not guarantee all year-round sales.
The correct option is having more than one customer segment.
Shruti wants to launch a small flora l shop in Nagarbhavi, Bengaluru. As part of business plan, she prepared an engaging. MS Powerpoint presentation to garner interest among potential investors and trigger discussion. This format of business plan is known as
The premise is to present your idea to potential investors; although all of the given options are valid forms of discussion, given the context, the presentation by Shruti would be concise and short, only catering for the necessary information and open to questioning by the investors.
Such presentations are known as pitch decks, a concise visual presentation, typically created in slides, used to communicate a business idea, product, or investment opportunity to potential investors, partners, or stakeholders.
Therefore, Option B is the correct answer.
Match List I with List II :
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
The correct answer is: a) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(A) Manage -(II) Gets the work done: Managing involves organizing and ensuring tasks are completed.
(B) Retailer -(I) Value addition: A retailer adds value by providing goods conveniently to customers.
(C) Entrepreneur -(IV) Calculate risk taking: Entrepreneurs are known for taking calculated risks to start or innovate businesses.
(D) Businessman -(III) Works on existing business model: Businessmen typically operate within established business frameworks or models.
Becoming an entrepreneur is more about
Option D is the correct answer.
Entrepreneurship involves much more than financial resources or external factors like support. The mindset is the most crucial factor, as it drives innovation, resilience, and the ability to take calculated risks. While commitment, money, and support can contribute, the entrepreneur's mindset ultimately determines their success.
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