CMAT 2024 Slot 1 Question Paper

Let C be Computer Science, M be Mechanical, and E be Electronics

Total number of students = C + M + E = 240 - (1)

It is also given that C + E = M - (2)

M =  Girls in M + Boys in M

Girls in M =  $$\dfrac{42.5}{100}M$$

Boys in M = $$\dfrac{57.5}{100}M$$

C = Girls in C + Boys in C

Girls in C =  $$\dfrac{1}{3}\times\ \dfrac{57.5}{100}M\ =\ \dfrac{57.5}{300}M$$

Boys in E -  Girls in C = Boys in C - Girls in E

Boys in E  +  Boys in C = Girls in C + Boys in C

E = C - (3)

Girls in E = 28.  

From (1), (2) and (3) we get

C + M + E = C + 2C + C = 240

4C = 240

C = E = 60

M = 120

Girls in M = $$\dfrac{42.5}{100}M$$ = $$\dfrac{42.5}{100}\ \times\ 120\ =\ 51$$

Girls in C = $$\dfrac{57.5}{300}\ \times\ 120\ =\ 23$$

Girls in E = 28

Total number of Girls = 51 + 23 + 28 = 102

The correct answer is option C.

Let C be Computer Science, M be Mechanical, and E be Electronics

Total number of students = C + M + E = 240 - (1)

It is also given that C + E = M - (2)

M = Girls in M + Boys in M

Girls in M = $$\dfrac{42.5}{100}M$$

Boys in M = $$\dfrac{57.5}{100}M$$

C = Girls in C + Boys in C

Girls in C = $$\dfrac{1}{3}\times\ \dfrac{57.5}{100}M\ =\ \dfrac{57.5}{300}M$$

Boys in E - Girls in C = Boys in C - Girls in E

Boys in E + Boys in C = Girls in C + Boys in C

E = C - (3)

Girls in E = 28.

From (1), (2) and (3) we get

C + M + E = C + 2C + C = 240

4C = 240

C = E = 60

M = 120

Girls in M = $$\dfrac{42.5}{100}M$$ = $$\dfrac{42.5}{100}\ \times\ 120\ =\ 51$$

Girls in C = $$\dfrac{57.5}{300}\ \times\ 120\ =\ 23$$

Girls in E = 28

The percentage number of girls who opted for Mechanical to the number of students who opted for Electronics is,

$$\dfrac{Girls\ in\ M}{E}\ \times\ 100\ =\ \dfrac{51}{60}\ \times\ 100\ =85\%\ $$

The correct answer is option C.

Let C be Computer Science, M be Mechanical, and E be Electronics

Total number of students = C + M + E = 240 - (1)

It is also given that C + E = M - (2)

M = Girls in M + Boys in M

Girls in M = $$\dfrac{42.5}{100}M$$

Boys in M = $$\dfrac{57.5}{100}M$$

C = Girls in C + Boys in C

Girls in C = $$\dfrac{1}{3}\times\ \dfrac{57.5}{100}M\ =\ \dfrac{57.5}{300}M$$

Boys in E - Girls in C = Boys in C - Girls in E

Boys in E + Boys in C = Girls in C + Boys in C

E = C - (3)

Girls in E = 28.

From (1), (2) and (3) we get

C + M + E = C + 2C + C = 240

4C = 240

C = E = 60

M = 120

Girls in M = $$\dfrac{42.5}{100}M$$ = $$\dfrac{42.5}{100}\ \times\ 120\ =\ 51$$

Girls in C = $$\dfrac{57.5}{300}\ \times\ 120\ =\ 23$$

Girls in E = 28

Boys in M = 120 - Girls in M = 120 - 51 = 69

E = 60

Ratio = $$\dfrac{69\ -\ 60}{60}\ \times\ 100\ =\ 15\%$$ 

The correct answer is option A.

Let the two-digit number be xy.

(2x)(y/2) = yx

So, 2x = y or y/2=x

This means the digit in the unit's place is twice the digit in ten's place.

Statement I :

Mixing the pulses in ratio 7 : 3, i.e. $$7x$$ kg and $$3x$$ kg

we get the total price of the mixture as $$7x\times15+3x\times20=165x$$

So, the price of 1 kg is $$\dfrac{165x}{10x}=16.5$$

Hence, Statement I is true.

Statement II :

If the quantity of rice sold at 16 % profit is 750 kg, then the quantity of rice sold at 8 % profit is 250 kg.

The overall profit is $$\dfrac{\left(16\times750+8\times250\right)}{1000}=\frac{14000}{1000}=14$$

Hence, Statement II is also true

The Duplicate Ratio of 2 : 7 is the compound of it by itself i.e. 4 : 49

The compound ratio of 2 : 7, 5 : 3 and 4 : 7 is 2*5*4 : 7*3*7 i.e. 40 : 147

The ratio same as 2 : 7 is 4 : 14

The ratio same as 5 : 6 is 25 : 30

Hence, the answer is Option B.

A: If $$\frac{1}{x} : \frac{1}{y} : \frac{1}{z}$$ = 2 : 3 : 5, then x : y : z = 15 : 10 : 6

$$x:y:z\ =\ \frac{1}{2}:\frac{1}{3}:\frac{1}{5}=\frac{15}{30}:\frac{10}{30}:\frac{6}{30}$$

Hence, x : y : z = 15 : 10 : 6

Correct

B: If 4p = 6q = 9r, then p : q : r = 9 : 6 : 4

Let 4p = 6q = 9r = k

Therefore, p = k/4

q = k/6

r = k/9

Hence, p : q : r = $$\frac{k}{4}:\frac{k}{6}:\frac{k}{9}=\frac{9k}{36}:\frac{6k}{36}:\frac{4k}{36}=9:6:4$$

Correct

C: If 2A = 3B = 4C, then A : B : C = 3 : 4 : 6

Let 2A = 3B = 4C = k

then A = k/2

B = k/3

C = k/4

So, A:B:C = $$\frac{k}{2}:\frac{k}{3}:\frac{k}{4}=\frac{6k}{12}:\frac{4k}{12}:\frac{3k}{12}=6:4:3$$

Incorrect

D: If P : Q : R = 2 : 3 : 4, then $$\frac{P}{Q} : \frac{Q}{R} : \frac{R}{P}$$ = 9 : 8 : 24

Let P = 2k so Q and R will be 3k and 4k

SO, $$\frac{P}{Q}:\frac{Q}{R}:\frac{R}{P}=\frac{2k}{3k}:\frac{3k}{4k}:\frac{4k}{2k}=\frac{2}{3}:\frac{3}{4}:2=8:9:24$$

Incorrect

From 3 years to 4 years, the interest earned is 73205-66550 = ₹ 6,655

Assuming Rate of Interest = r%

Principal = 66,550

For 1 year from 3rd to 4th year, the amount becomes = ₹ 73,205

So, Interest = PRT/100

6655 = 66500*r*1/100

r = 10%

A glass jar contains 1 red, 3 green, 2 blue and 4 yellow marbles.

If a single marble is chosen at random from the jar, the probability of getting a yellow marble =$$\frac{\text{no of yellow marbles}}{\text{Total no of mables}}$$= $$\frac{4}{10}$$

Probability of getting a green marble = $$\frac{\text{no of green marbles}}{\text{Total no of mables}}$$ = $$\frac{3}{10}$$

Probability of getting either a yellow or a green marble = $$\frac{\text{no of yellow or green marbles}}{\text{Total no of mables}}$$ = $$\frac{4+3}{10}$$ = $$\frac{7}{10}$$

Probability of getting either a red or a yellow marble = $$\frac{\text{no of yellow or red marbles}}{\text{Total no of mables}}$$ = $$\frac{4+1}{10}$$ = $$\frac{5}{10}$$

So, only B, C are correct.

A. $$\sqrt{\dfrac{0.81\times\ 0.484}{0.064\times6.25}}=\sqrt{\dfrac{0.81\times\ 4.84}{0.64\times6.25}}=\sqrt{\dfrac{\left(0.9\right)^2\times\ \left(2.2\right)^2}{\left(0.8\right)^2\times\left(2.5\right)^2}}=\dfrac{0.9\times2.2}{0.8\times2.5}=0.99$$

B. $$\sqrt{\dfrac{0.204\times\ 42}{0.07\times3.4}}=\sqrt{\dfrac{20.4\times42}{3.4\times7}}=\sqrt{6\times6}=6$$

C. $$\sqrt{\dfrac{0.081\times0.324\times\ 4.624}{1.5625\times0.0289\times\ 72.9\times64}}=\sqrt{\dfrac{\left(0.9\right)^2\times\left(0.18\right)^2\times\left(6.8\right)^2}{\left(1.25\right)^2\times\left(0.17\right)^2\times\left(27\right)^2\times8^2}}=\dfrac{0.9\times0.18\times6.8}{1.25\times0.17\times27\times8}=0.024$$

D. $$\sqrt{\dfrac{9.5\times0.085}{0.0017\times0.19}}=\sqrt{50\times50}=50$$

A) $$16\frac{2}{3}$$ % = 0.1667
B) $$\frac{2}{15}$$ = 0.1333
C) 0.17 = 0.17
D) 0.25 % of 64 = 0.16

Hence, 

B < D < A < C

We can rewrite the following as:

A) $$\sqrt[4]{3}$$ = $$3^{\dfrac{1}{4}}$$

B) $$\sqrt[3]{2}$$ = $$2^{\dfrac{1}{3}}$$

C) $$\sqrt[6]{5}$$ = $$5^{\dfrac{1}{6}}$$

D) $$\sqrt[6]{7}$$ = $$7^{\dfrac{1}{6}}$$

Now, we will make the denominator of all equal:

A)$$3^{\dfrac{3}{12}}$$

B) $$2^{\dfrac{4}{12}}$$

C) $$5^{\dfrac{2}{12}}$$

D) $$7^{\dfrac{2}{12}}$$

Simplifying further, we get, 

A)$$3^{\dfrac{3}{12}}$$ = $$\left(3^3\right)^{\dfrac{1}{12}}=\left(27\right)^{\dfrac{1}{12}}$$

B) $$2^{\dfrac{4}{12}}$$ = $$\left(2^4\right)^{\dfrac{1}{12}}=\left(16\right)^{\dfrac{1}{12}}$$

C) $$5^{\dfrac{2}{12}}$$ = $$\left(5^2\right)^{\dfrac{1}{12}}=\left(25\right)^{\dfrac{1}{12}}$$

D) $$7^{\dfrac{2}{12}}$$ = $$\left(7^2\right)^{\dfrac{1}{12}}=\left(49\right)^{\dfrac{1}{12}}$$

Arranging them in sequence: We get: B < C < A < D

Let the cost price be Rs. 1000 per kg

So, Selling price = Rs. 900 per kg

But he sells only 70% of the quantity claiming it to be 100% quanitity.

So, the actual cost price of 700 grams = Rs. 700

Actual selling price = Rs. 900

Profit = Rs. 200

Profit % = (Profit/Cost Price)*100 = 200/700 = 200/7 % = $$28\dfrac{4}{7}$$%

If roots are reciprocal to each other, the product of roots will be 1. 

From the given equation, the product of roots will be $$\frac{r}{p}$$. That wil be equal to 1.

So, r = p

Statement I :

If Shyam can finish the task by working alone in 8 days, so he will do $$\dfrac{6}{8}\times100=75\%$$ os the work in 6 days.

The remaining 25% is done by Ram is 6 days.

So, if Ram does 25% of the work in 6 days, he will take $$\dfrac{100}{25}\times6=24$$ days to complete the work alone.

Hence, the given statement is true.

Statement II :

Assume 1 person does 1 man hour work in one hour

So, in one week, working 8 hours a day, 

The total work done by 6 person is $$6\times8\times7=336$$ man hours

Assume the payment to be Rs. $$x$$ per man-hour

So, $$336x=8400$$

or, $$x=25$$

The total man hours for 9 persons working 6 hours a day for a week will be

$$9\times6\times7=378$$

So, the money earned is $$378x=378\times25=9450$$

Hence, the given statement is true.

If abc is positive, it can have two cases:

Case 1: when all three integers are postive

Case 2: when any two are negative and the third is positive (as the two negative will cancel while multiplying)

We need to find the option which must be true:

Option 1: $$\dfrac{a}{b} < 0$$

It is not necessary that one of a and b is negative and the other one is positive. It can be possible that but both a and b are negative and hence the fraction can be greater than 0. Therefore, this option is not necessarily true. 

Option 2: $$\dfrac{ab}{c} > 0$$

Here, if all the three integers are positive then the expression will definitely be greater than 0. On the other hand, if any two are negative the according to the expression, the negatives will cancel out and the expression will again be greater than 0. Hence, this option must be true. 

Option 3: $$bc < 0$$

Same as option 1, it is not necessary that one of  b and c is negative and the other one is positive for the expression to be true. There can also be the possibility when both are negative and the product can be greater than 0 in that case.

Option 4: $$a > bc$$

We don't know the numeric values so we can't say that a will be greater than the product of b and c necessarily. 

The volume of the sphere = $$\dfrac{4}{3}\times\ \pi\ \times\ \left(3\right)^3=36\pi\ $$

Now, the water level will increase equal to the volume of the sphere. 

Let the water level increasing by h cm.

Therefore, $$36\pi\ =\pi\ \times\ \left(4\right)^2\times h$$

$$h=\dfrac{9}{4}$$

"OMEGA" comprises 5 letters: O, M, E, G, A.

Vowels: O, E, A (3 vowels)

Consonants: M, G (2 consonants)

Odd positions in a 5-letter word are: 1st, 3rd, and 5th.

The vowels O, E, and A can be placed in these positions in 3! = 6 ways.

The even positions are 2 and 4.

The consonants M and G can be arranged in these positions in 2! = 2 ways.

The total number of arrangements is the product of the arrangements of vowels and consonants = 3! x 2! = 6*2 = 12 ways.

Let A be his additional investement. The interest obtained on A will be 0.08A.

The interest obtained on Rs. 1,200 will be Rs. 60.

60+0.08A = 0.06(1200+A)

0.02A = 12

A = 600

Assume the length of the first train to be $$x$$ m

So, the length of the second train is $$0.5x$$ m

The total length to be covered = $$1.5x$$ m

As they are travelling in the opposite directions, their speed will add in relative frame

So, the combined speed is $$48+42\ =\ 90\ $$kmph or $$\ 90\times\dfrac{5}{18}=25$$ m/s

So, $$\dfrac{1.5x}{25}=12$$

$$1.5x=300$$

or, $$x=200$$ m

Given it passes the station in 45 sec

Let the length of the station be $$l$$ m

So, $$\dfrac{l+x}{48\times\dfrac{5}{18}}=45$$

$$l+x=600$$

$$l=400$$ m

Hence, the answer is 400 m

The most logical order would be,

(B) Monsoon, (A) Rain, (D) Flood, (C) Rescue, (E) Shelter, (F) Relief

Hence, the correct answer is option C.

We are asked the color of the milk which is white and in the second phrase, we are told that green means white. Hence, the color of the milk is green. 

If you look at the 4 dices given in the question, numbers 6, 3 and 4 are adjacent to 2.

Hence, these options are eliminated.

Thus. the number on the face opposite the face showing 2 is 5.

A monkey climbs 20 feet at the beginning of each hour and rests for a while when he slips back 5 feet before he again starts climbing in the beginning of the next hour. So, the resultant height moved in an hour will be 15 feet.

In six hours, the monkey reaches 90 feet. At the start of 7th hour, monkey climbs 20 feet. With this it touches 110 feet.

So, at exactly 3:00 PM monkey reaches 110 ft for the first time.

• Bald and Blond are related in that they are both terms used to describe characteristics of hair. Bald refers to a lack of hair, while Blond refers to a color of hair.
• Similarly, Barren and Fertile are related in that they are opposites concerning the ability to produce offspring or to be productive. Barren refers to the inability to produce, while Fertile refers to the ability to produce, often used in the context of soil, animals, or people (as in fertility).

Thus, the relationship is based on opposites or contrasts between the terms, just as Bald contrasts with Blond, so Barren contrasts with Fertile.

A is 16th from the left, which means that there are 15 members to the left of A. C is 16th from the right, which means that there are 15 members to the right of C. It is also given that B is 4th to the right of A and 5th to the left of C. So, there are a total of 15 members to the left of A, 3 members between A and B, 4 members between B and C, and 15 members to the right of C in the row of boys. So, the total number of boys in the row is 15 + 3 + 4 + 15 + 3 = 40 boys. The last 3 in the calculation represent A, B and C.

Hence, the correct answer is option B.

H = 8th       A = 1st       N = 14th  D = 4th

S = 19th      Z = 26th      M = 13th     W = 23rd

8 + 19 = 27

1 + 26 = 27

14 + 13 = 27

4 + 23 = 27

Similarly, 

M = 13th    I = 9th    L = 12th    K = 11th

Now, let's check for all the options:

Option a: O = 15th     R = 18th     N = 14th    P = 16th      Not equal sum

Option b: P = 16th    N = 14th      R = 18th    O = 15th     Not equal sum

Option c: N = 14th     R = 18th     O = 15th    P = 16th     Equal sum = 27

Option d: R = 18th     N = 14th     O = 15th    P = 16th     Not equal sum

If you look carefully on the images given of the cylinder, you will observe that the cylindrical bases have Pink and Yellow colours.

The colours on the curve of the cylinder are Green, Blue, Red and Violet.

Green and Blue colours are together, so Red and Violet will be together.

Hence, the colour in the empty space is Violet.

I: People do not ask about your tailor if your shirt is not good.
The statement implies that when a shirt is excellent, it prompts people to inquire about the tailor. This suggests that such inquiries are tied to the shirt's quality. Therefore, it is reasonable to assume that if the shirt is not good, people are less likely to ask about the tailor. Assumption I is implicit in the statement.

II: People want to know the criteria of an excellent shirt.

The statement does not explicitly mention or imply that people are interested in the criteria for an excellent shirt. It focuses on their curiosity about the tailor, which could stem from admiration of the craftsmanship, rather than a desire to understand what makes a shirt excellent. Assumption II is not necessarily implied by the statement.

So, only Assumption I is implicit

• Argument I raises a valid concern about individual privacy, but the intrusion into privacy is not necessarily absolute. In public health matters, certain individual rights can be balanced against the potential benefits to society. For example, medical checks before marriage could prevent serious health risks for future children, which could be seen as a societal benefit that outweighs individual privacy concerns in this specific context.
• Argument II is stronger because it addresses a clear, tangible benefit: reducing the risk of giving birth to children with serious health conditions. This has direct positive implications for public health and the well-being of families and future generations. The argument is grounded in a practical, preventive approach that could have significant health benefits, making it a more compelling reason for the compulsory medical examination.

Therefore, Argument II is stronger because it presents a clear, socially beneficial reason for why compulsory medical examinations might be necessary, with long-term health benefits, whereas Argument I is more abstract and focused on individual rights without addressing the potential public health advantages.

The given statements can be represented diagrammatically as follows,

From the diagram, it is clear that X must have been walking in the north direction at the end. 

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Between 10 A.M. on Monday to 1:00 PM the following day, the watch gained 4.5 minutes. 

So, in 27 hours, the watch gained 4.5 minutes. 

It means, the watch gained every minute in every $$\dfrac{27}{4.5}=6$$ hours

At 10:00 AM, the watch was 2 minutes slow, so the watch would be showing accurate time in next 2*6 = 12 hours i.e. 10:00 P.M.

The relationship is one of synonyms:

"Vigilant" and "Alert" are synonymous, meaning watchful or attentive.

"Similarly, "Viable" means capable of working or feasible.

Bajra, Barley, and Rice are all cereals or grains primarily grown for their seeds, which are used as staple food crops. Mustard is primarily an oilseed crop, grown for its seeds that are processed to produce mustard oil or used as a spice.

Since mustard serves a different primary purpose (oil production or seasoning) compared to the others (staple food grains), it is the odd one out.

• (A) Some suitcases are bags:
  Since some bags are purses (from Statement 1), and all purses are containers (Statement 2), and all containers are suitcases (Statement 3), this logically means that some of the bags, through purses, will also be suitcases. Therefore, Conclusion (A) is true.
• (B) All purses are bags:
  The statement "some bags are purses" does not imply that all purses are bags. Thus, Conclusion (B) does not follow from the given statements.
• (C) All purses are suitcases:
  Since all purses are containers and all containers are suitcases, it follows logically that all purses are suitcases. Therefore, Conclusion (C) is true.
• (D) Some containers are purses:
  Since all purses are containers, it follows that some containers (specifically, purses) are indeed purses. Therefore, Conclusion (D) is true as well.

Thus, the correct conclusions are (A), (C), and (D).

The number of triangles with no lines inside them is 6.

The number of triangles with 1 line inside them is 7.

The number of triangles with multiple lines inside them is 8.

So, a total of 21 triangles are inside the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is option D.

Let Miss Lilly start moving towards North direction. So the diagram would be as follows:

According to this diagram, Lilly is currently in the North - East Direction from her house. 

If we tilt to make the current direction of Lilly in North - West direction, we get the following diagram,

Hence, Lilly would have initially moved in in the West Direction.

Assertion (A) states that a person with blood group O is supposed to be a universal donor. This statement is scientifically accurate because individuals with blood group O can donate blood to recipients of any other blood group. Their red blood cells do not have A or B antigens on their surface, which minimizes the risk of an immune reaction when their blood is transfused into someone with a different blood group.

The Reason (R) explains that blood group O contains no antigens. This statement is correct because individuals with blood group O lack A and B antigens in their red blood cells. The absence of these antigens means that the recipient's immune system is less likely to recognize the donor blood as foreign, making it safe for transfusion across different blood groups.

Finally, the Reason (R) directly and sufficiently explains why the Assertion (A) is accurate. The universal donor status of blood group O is entirely due to the absence of A and B antigens, which is why the Reason is the correct explanation for the Assertion.

Hence, Both statements are correct, and the Reason explains the Assertion appropriately.

The given statement states that "domestic demand has been increasing faster than production of indigenous crude oil."
This means the country's demand would be greater than its current production, or supply. 

In this case, we must look for a conclusion to address the issue mentioned in the statement. So, Either of the given conclusions would follow because:
I. This would resolve the issue of meeting demand if production is less than demand.
II. This could help tackle the issue by balancing the demand with the available supply.

Therefore, Option C is the correct answer.

Taking square root of the numbers on the edges

$$\sqrt{9}=3$$

$$\sqrt{36}=6$$

$$\sqrt{64}=8$$

$$\sqrt{169}=13$$

Adding these and dividing by 5 we get

$$\dfrac{3+6+8+13}{5}=\dfrac{30}{5}=6$$

Similarly, for the second one we get

$$\sqrt{16}=4$$

$$\sqrt{49}=7$$

$$\sqrt{9}=3$$

$$\sqrt{36}=6$$

Adding these and dividing by 5 we get

$$\dfrac{4+7+3+6}{5}=\dfrac{20}{5}=4$$

Hence, for the last one we get

$$\sqrt{81}=9$$

$$\sqrt{100}=10$$

$$\sqrt{25}=5$$

$$\sqrt{121}=11$$

Adding these and dividing by 5 we get

$$\dfrac{9+10+5+11}{5}=\dfrac{35}{5}=7$$

Hence, the answer is 7.

The answer is both as a noun and an adjective as it is used to refer to the head of an institution and the primary concern

"He" is singular in nature. In simple present tense, the singular subject takes the verb in the third person with a -s. 
hence, the correct answer would be "catches."

Option B: "Is catching" shows a continuous nature, which does not fit the sentence's " often "e. 

Option D: "Have caught" shows the past nature, which also does not fit the present form of the original sentence. 

Option A: "catch" is the base form, if we want to use catch we would need something like "He does often catch cold."

Therefore, Option C is the correct answer. 

Option B is the correct answer.

The other options (hold back, hold on, hold up) are phrasal verbs that have commonly used idiomatic meanings:

Hold back: To restrain or keep something under control.
Hold on: To wait or to endure.
Hold up: To delay or to support.

On the other hand, hold high is not a commonly used idiomatic expression in English, making it the odd one out.

The word "obligatory" means something that is required or compulsory, often implying that it must be done or adhered to. The only word opposite to this is "voluntary:" this means done out of one's free will, not compelled or mandatory.  Hence, Option C is the correct choice. 

Speech without any prior preparation is the definition of Extempore

Option B is grammatically incorrect; the advertisement does not "see" and can easily be eliminated.

Option C is also slightly grammatically incorrect, it should be "is seen" and not "are seen", also the placement of "one" fits awkwardly. 

Option D changes the intent of the original sentence, it is not that thee advertisements are shown everywhere but that they are seen everwhere 

Option A is the only correct passive form of the sentence. 

Therefore, Option A is the correct answer. 

Option C is the correct answer. 'Getting at me' is the correct phrasal verb here, meaning "criticizing me" or "picking on me," which fits the context.

Gets at me (Option A) is in the wrong tense and does not align with the rest of the sentence structure. Get off at me (Option B) and getting by me (Option D) are not idiomatic or grammatically correct in this context.

The word "concerned" (used as a past participle) is appropriate because it expresses that the chapter is focused on or dedicated to a specific subject, i.e., the role and reach of reasoning. This usage aligns with formal writing conventions.

The word "provide" fits because it completes the infinitive verb phrase "can provide," indicating the potential role of reasoning in forming a theory of justice. This is both grammatically correct and contextually appropriate.

The definite article "the" is appropriate because "first chapter" is a specific entity. In formal English, we use "the" before ordinal numbers (e.g., "the first," "the second") to denote something specific and singular.

Option D is the correct answer. The sequence BADC forms a coherent paragraph.

Sentence (B) introduces the central issue of India's water crisis.
Sentence (A) elaborates on the pollution in water bodies, providing a reason for the crisis.
Sentence (D) highlights the lack of clean water availability as a consequence.
Sentence (C) concludes with the resulting interstate disputes over river water.

The definition of "Cajole" is as follows: persuade (someone) to do something by sustained flattery. 
Using this we can infer that the synonyms are Entice and Coax

Why C is the starting sentence:
The sentence must begin with the subject, which is "The Indian Government" (C). This introduces who is performing the action, making it the logical starting point.

Why B follows C:
After introducing the subject, the next logical step is to describe what the government "had to plan for" (B). This phrase connects the subject to the action.

Why A comes after B:
The phrase "balanced economic growth" (A) specifies what the government planned for, naturally following the verb phrase in B.

Why D comes last:
"and development of a huge country" (D) adds additional detail and completes the idea, providing a conclusion to the sentence.

Thus, the logical flow is:
C (subject) → B (action) → A (object of planning) → D (additional detail).

(A) Win hands down can be easily understood to win without putting much effort, the option most in line with this would be II, conquering easily. 

(B) Learning the hard way would best fit III: Learning from bad experiences. 

(C) Feeling blue is not very common, but among the given options, only IV: Miserable would best fit the "blue". 

(D) The connection of "heel" can be made to connect with running and I: to run away. 

Henc,e the correct matching would be: (A)-II, (B)-III, (C)-IV, (D)-I

Therefore, Option C is the correct answer. 

Option C is the correct answer.

A. Alibi - (II) Other [Refers to being "elsewhere" (other) as an excuse for not being at the scene of a crime.]
B. Ex parte - (IV) From one side only [ Refers to a legal proceeding conducted from one side only.]
C. Lex loci - (III) The law of the place [Means "the law of the place" in legal terminology.]
D. Quid pro quo - (I) This for that [Means "something for something" or "this for that."]

Modal verbs are auxiliary verbs that express modality, indicating possibility, ability, permission, necessity, or obligation. For example: "She can swim."

Statement I: This is correct; modal verbs have only one form (for example, can, may, should and so on); they do not have -ing or -ed forms. 

Statement II: This is incorrect; modal verbs are not followed by the past participle directly, but by the base form of the verb. 

Therefore, Option C is the correct answer. 

Assertion (A): The sentence "The details of the incident was not known" does not adhere to the requirement of subject-verb agreement and is grammatically incorrect.
This is correct because the subject "details" is plural, so the verb should be "were" instead of "was."

Reason (R): In "Noun + Preposition + Noun" constructions, the verb agrees with the number and person of the noun preceding the preposition.
This is also correct because in the given sentence, the noun preceding the preposition "of" is "details," which is plural. Therefore, the verb should match the plural subject.

Conclusion: The Reason (R) correctly explains the grammatical error identified in Assertion (A). Thus, the correct answer is:
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Statement I is correct. Dare is usually used in sentences to question the authority of an action in a negative tone: He dare speak against the king. It also is often followed by "to": He dared to steal again from here. 

Statement II is also correct; it can also be used as a modal verb: "He dare not speak." or "He dares to challenge his opponents."

Both statements are correct. 

Therefore, Option A is the correct answer. 

The passage discusses how uniform and fixed systems of education are limiting and how diversity is essential for human excellence and progress. The author argues for a flexible, varied approach to education to foster intellectual and moral growth. In this context, let us evaluate the given statements -

Statement A: The author indeed establishes a binary between uniformity (which is static and limiting) and diversity (which promotes intellectual and moral progress).

Statement B: The passage explicitly criticizes fixed and uniform educational systems and does not uphold them.

Statement C: While the author associates uniformity with brutishness, the passage does not present it as necessary for society but rather as an impediment to progress.

Statement D: The passage strongly advocates for diversity in education as a cornerstone for human excellence and development, contrasting it with the uniformity found in nature (e.g., birds).

Hence, only statements A and D are valid. Therefore, Option C is the correct choice. 

The passage is not descriptive (as in Option A) or narrative (as in Option B) but rather an exploration of education's transformative power and its role in advancing human capabilities. This makes Option C the best choice. The passage is reflective and philosophical, exploring the role and impact of education on human development. It emphasizes how education can shape individuals, encourage diversity, and lead to infinite intellectual and moral improvement.

Statement I: "The founder of Buddhism, Gautam Buddha, was born in 540 BC at Lumbini."

This statement is false because most accepted historical sources place Buddha’s birth around 563 BC, not 540 BC. However, Lumbini in present-day Nepal is correctly recognised as his birthplace.

Statement II: "Buddhism followed the middle path for the attainment of salvation and believed in the concept of non-violence."

This statement is true. Buddhism emphasises the Middle Path (Madhyam Marg) - avoiding extreme asceticism and indulgence. It also strongly advocates ahimsa or non-violence as a core ethical principle.

Thus, Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.

Statement I: "Graphite is a good conductor of electricity."

This is true because graphite has a layered structure with free electrons that can move easily, making it conduct electricity despite being a non-metal.

Statement II: "Diamond is highly transparent and the hardest known material."

This is also true. Diamond has a tetrahedral lattice structure, which gives exceptional hardness. It is also highly transparent owing to strong covalent bonding and the absence of free electrons.

Hence, both statements are true.

Dennis Tito, an American engineer and multimillionaire, became the world’s first space tourist in 2001. He flew aboard Russia’s Soyuz spacecraft to the International Space Station after paying a significant fee. Thus, he holds the record as the first self-funded civilian to visit space.

(A) It is one of the oldest civilisations - True, it flourished around 2500 BCE, comparable to Mesopotamia and Egypt.

(B) Familiar with wheat, rice, barley - True, grains like wheat and barley were cultivated; rice has been found particularly at Lothal and Rangpur.

(C) First to produce cotton - True, they are believed to be the earliest known producers of cotton, known to the Greeks as “Sindon.”

(D) Homes made of mud and soil - False, houses were typically built from baked bricks, not mud.

(E) Not familiar with copper - False, they used bronze (copper + tin) and copper tools.

Hence, A, B, and C are only correct.

Article 21A of the Constitution of India was inserted by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002. It makes free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 years a fundamental right. It ensures that the state provides education as part of the right to life (Article 21).

Kathakali is a classical dance-drama that originated in Kerala and is known for its elaborate costumes, facial makeup, and expressive gestures. It draws themes mainly from Hindu epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata and uses elaborate hand movements (mudras), music, and dramatic acting. It is traditionally performed in temples and at cultural festivals in Kerala and remains one of the most recognisable cultural art forms of the state. 

The Panchayati Raj system was first introduced in the Nagaur district of Rajasthan on 2 October 1959, following the recommendations of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee. Rajasthan became the first state to adopt a system of democratic decentralisation at the village level, with a focus on empowering local self-governance. Andhra Pradesh implemented it soon after, but Rajasthan was the first.

Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, also known as Frontier Gandhi, was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1987, making him the first non-Indian citizen to receive India’s highest civilian honour. A prominent leader of the nonviolent and freedom struggle, he supported India’s independence movement and was deeply respected by Mahatma Gandhi, underscoring his significant contribution. 

Let’s evaluate each:

(A) Palaeolithic men survived by hunting, fishing, and gathering fruits/nuts. True. The Palaeolithic period, also known as the Old Stone Age, was characterised by a hunter-gatherer lifestyle.

(B) Men in the Mesolithic age domesticated animals and started semi-settled life. True. The Mesolithic period marks a transition during which early domestication of animals and seasonal settlements began.

(C) Men in the Mesolithic age invented the wheel. False. The wheel was invented later, during the Neolithic, not the Mesolithic, age.

(D) Men in the Chalcolithic age practised agriculture. True. The Chalcolithic (Copper-Stone Age) witnessed the cultivation, use of copper tools, and the formation of settled farming communities.

Thus, the correct statements are A, B and D only.

My Life is an autobiography written by Bill Clinton, the 42nd President of the United States. Published in 2004, it covers his early life, political rise, presidency, major policies, and personal challenges. It gives insights into American politics and key global events during his tenure. 

Option c) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV). is the correct answer.

Intrapreneur → Risk-taking in an organisational role (II):  An intrapreneur is an individual within an organization who takes initiative and risks to innovate or implement ideas within the company.

Entrepreneur → Calculated Risk-taking (III): Entrepreneurs are individuals who take calculated risks to start and run businesses, aiming for profit and growth.

Distributor → Value Addition (I): Distributors play a crucial role in adding value by bridging the gap between manufacturers and consumers, ensuring products reach the market.

Customer → Utility Maximisation (IV) : Customers aim to maximise their utility or satisfaction by choosing products or services that best meet their needs and preferences.

The correct answer here is Option D: (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I).

(A) - (III): Availability of raw materials, machinery, etc., falls under technical feasibility, as it ensures that the required inputs and resources for production are technically viable.

(B) - (IV): Demand and customer preferences are related to market feasibility, as they determine the product’s market acceptance.

(C) - (II): Profit projections relate to financial feasibility, as they evaluate whether the business can sustain itself financially.

(D) - (I): A business plan integrates market, technical, and financial feasibility, summarizing the overall strategy for the business.

The entrepreneur is best described by both (1) and (2) because:

• Option A: Entrepreneurs are indeed catalysts for change. They identify gaps in the market, challenge the status quo, and drive innovation, often creating significant shifts in how industries operate. Their aggressive pursuit of improvement and solutions marks them as transformative forces.
• Option B: Entrepreneurs are independent thinkers who take calculated risks and dare to stand out. They pursue unconventional paths and ideas that differentiate them from the crowd, often pioneering new trends and practices.
• Option C: While entrepreneurs create businesses, reducing their role to mere creators is an oversimplification. Their impact extends beyond the creation stage, influencing industries, economies, and society.

Entrepreneurs do more than just create businesses. They embody the spirit of innovation (A) and individuality (B), which are essential in navigating dynamic and competitive business environments. Together, these traits highlight their multifaceted role.

Therefore, the correct answer is option D.

Speculative risk  business refers to the type of risk that involves the possibility of either a gain or a loss. Unlike pure risk, which only involves the potential for loss (such as property damage or injury), speculative risk allows for the possibility of both positive and negative outcomes.

According to the question,  A special promotion fails to increase the sales  is an example of a speculative risk business because there is a possibility of either gaining or losing (in this case, the company might not achieve the desired sales increase). Speculative risks involve outcomes that can result in both profits and losses, which is the nature of this situation.

An intrapreneur is a corporate manager or employee who takes the initiative within an organization to create a new business unit, product, or service. They act like entrepreneurs but work within the structure and resources of an existing organization. Intrapreneurs bring innovative ideas to life while leveraging the company's support.

Ecopreneur: Focuses on environmental sustainability and creates businesses that contribute to ecological well-being.

Technopreneur: An entrepreneur who specializes in technology-based ventures.

Businessman/Businesswoman: Refers to individuals engaged in traditional business operations, typically outside the scope of intrapreneurship.

Hence, answer is Option C lntrapreneur

Joseph Schumpeter, an economist, is well-known for his theory on entrepreneurship, where he emphasized the role of innovation as the primary function of an entrepreneur. He introduced the concept of "creative destruction," where new innovations disrupt existing markets and drive economic growth. Schumpeter highlighted that entrepreneurs are key agents of innovation in the economy.

The Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) provides loans to micro and small enterprises under three categories:

1. Shishu (Up to ₹50,000): This category is for very small businesses or startups looking for small loans.
2. Kishore (₹50,001 to ₹5 lakh): This category is for businesses that are slightly larger or need more working capital.
3. Tarun (₹5,00,001 to ₹10 lakh): This category is for more established businesses that require larger amounts of funding for expansion.

Hence, the answer is (A), (B) and (D) only

The stages of Entrepreneurship Creativity are logically sequenced as follows:

1. Knowledge accumulation (A): This is the initial stage where the entrepreneur gathers information, insights, and expertise relevant to the problem or opportunity.
2. Incubation (B): In this stage, the gathered knowledge is subconsciously processed, allowing ideas to develop and mature over time.
3. Idea experience (D): Here, the entrepreneur experiences a "eureka moment" or breakthrough idea based on the incubation process.
4. Evaluation (E): The generated idea is critically assessed for feasibility, practicality, and potential impact.
5. Implementation (C): The final stage involves putting the evaluated idea into action, turning creativity into tangible outcomes.

Thus, the correct sequence is (A), (B), (D), (E), (C).

Let's consider each statement 

(A) Hiring and retaining talent is one of the most crucial things a business needs to do when scaling up. When scaling, an organisation can not afford to lose its top employees and needs to hire good talent to handle the additional responsibilities that would come with expansion. 

(B) Also becomes essential, scaling up often requires resources, for which investors are looked for. The investor must share the same goal for the organisation; otherwise, it would lead to problems in the functioning and decision-making of the business down the line. 

(C) Scalin up requires a change in the structure of the organisation and responsibilities for a majority of the workforce; managing how the employees spend their time and what work they are assigned becomes a crucial aspect in times of expansion. 

(D) It is also crucial to consider the market position before expanding a business; hence, this must be considered. 

(E) Although this is a valid point to consider during the early stages of a company, how the business idea is planned out is done when the organization is in its initial phases, whether it is a smaller company or a start-up. Although checking the feasibility of scaling is also relevant from an expansion perspective, the "idea experience" is more about how the business actually would work. 
Further, no option includes all five statements, and of the given statements, E is the least relevant from a scaling perspective. 

Thereofre Optoin C is the correct answer. 

Option b) (A), (B), (C) and (E) only is the correct answer.

The design thinking process typically involves the following key stages:

1. Empathise: Understanding the user's needs and experiences.
2. Define: Clearly defining the problem or challenge.
3. Ideate: Brainstorming and generating creative ideas.
4. Prototype: Developing low-fidelity versions of the solution to test ideas.
5. Test: Testing the prototypes to gather feedback and refine the solution.
   
   D) Modelling is not a part of the design thinking process.

Entrepreneurship Development Programmes (EDPs) focus on identifying and selecting potential entrepreneurs, enhancing their capabilities through training, and developing their entrepreneurial mindset. Though they address entrepreneurial skills and strategies, they do not directly involve arranging infrastructural capabilities, which are external, logistical concerns typically handled by other agencies or partnerships. Hence, Option D is the best choice. 

The Government of India launched the Start-Up India initiative in 2016 to foster innovation, encourage entrepreneurship, and support new-age ideas and enterprises. This program focuses on building a robust startup ecosystem by providing financial support, simplifying regulations, and promoting collaboration between startups and government or private entities.

A) Production Linked Incentive (PLI): A scheme to boost domestic manufacturing and exports in specific sectors by linking incentives to production. It targets established industries rather than startups.

B) Special Economic Zone (SEZ): Focuses on promoting exports and investments by creating industrial zones with favourable economic laws but not directly aimed at startups.

C) Technology Development Board: Provides financial assistance for commercializing indigenous technologies but is not a comprehensive startup ecosystem program.

Therefore, the correct answer is option D.

Statement I: "People's attitudes have changed over the years leading to involvement of State (Government) in businesses globally."

This statement is misleading because while people’s attitudes have indeed evolved, the increased involvement of the state in business globally is more driven by economic, social, and political factors rather than just changes in people's attitudes.

Statement II: "Increasing technicality is leading to State (Government) to make interventions in businesses globally."

This statement is also incorrect in its phrasing. While increasing technical complexity in industries may be necessary for certain government interventions (like regulations for safety, intellectual property, etc.), the statement makes it sound as though the main driver of state intervention is the technical complexity itself, which is not entirely accurate.

The correct answer is "Live and License" because it is not a recognized form of business organization.

Sole Proprietorship: This is the simplest form of business, where a single individual owns and manages the enterprise.

Partner Organization: In this setup, two or more individuals come together to run a business and share profits, responsibilities, and liabilities.

Private Limited Company: This is a registered company with limited liability for its shareholders, often chosen for scalability and credibility.

On the other hand, "Live and License" does not pertain to business structuring. It usually refers to property agreements, such as a rental contract, and has no relevance to initiating a business or enterprise.

A) Present Market Demand gives a snapshot of the current consumption levels.

B) Export Market Demand helps in understanding the potential in international markets, which can contribute to overall market potential.

C) Future Market Demand is crucial for projecting growth and long-term viability.

Labour Demand (D) and Retailer's Consumption Preferences (E), while important for operational and marketing strategies, are less directly related to estimating overall market potential.

So, option C is the correct answer. 

Statement I: True
An entrepreneur can indeed gather useful information about competitors from publicly available sources like company reports and websites. These sources often include annual reports, financial statements, and other insights into the competitors' strategies.

Statement II: False
The first step to avail finance for a new project is not the promoter's biodata. Typically, the first step involves preparing a detailed business plan or project proposal that outlines the nature of the business, its objectives, financial projections, and the need for financing. The promoter's biodata may be required later during the due diligence process but is not usually the very first step in seeking financing.

Assertion (A): Small businesses are considered important to economic development.
This is correct because small businesses contribute significantly to job creation, economic diversification, and the development of local economies.

Reason (R): Small businesses can be innovators of new products and provide specialist support to larger companies.
This is also correct because small businesses often bring innovation to the market through niche products and services while complementing the operations of larger firms by offering specialized expertise.

Conclusion: The Reason (R) clearly explains why small businesses are important to economic development, as stated in Assertion (A). Therefore, the correct answer is:
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Statement I: This is widely considered true as yoga and hobbies are scientifically proven to reduce stress, improve mental health, and promote relaxation. Hence, this statement is correct. 

Statement II: While a certain stress level (known as eustress) can motivate an individual to perform better, chronic or excessive stress is generally harmful and counterproductive. Stress is not universally "welcoming" and does not inherently lead to a balanced life. Hence, this statement is incorrect. 

Therefore, Option C is the correct answer.

Option D is the correct answer.

For an enterprise dealing in instant coffee, the factors that provide a competitive edge are:

1) Quality and taste: Customers are primarily drawn to products that meet their expectations in terms of taste and quality. This is a critical factor for a coffee business.

3) Ambience and customer relationship: While selling coffee, creating a positive customer experience and maintaining good relationships can improve customer retention and loyalty.

Population increase in the city (option B) is not a direct factor that provides a competitive edge, as it doesn’t guarantee increased preference for the business or its products.