Which of the following languages is NOT listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
TISSNET 2023
For the following questions answer them individually
The minimum and maximum capping of pension under the Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana are ____________ , respectively
Recently, David Warner scored a double century (200 runs or more) in his 100 Test Cricket match. Who is the other batsman in the world to have scored a double century in his 100 Test Cricket match?
Which Gharana is famous for Dhrupad ?
The current number of Union Territories in India is ________.
Which city is known as the soccer ball manufacturing capital of the world?
Loans not repaid for ______ days are classified as non-performing assets
Reverse Mortgage Scheme in 2007 was launched by the Government of India to benefit ___________.
Facial recognition software has been introduced in India for _____.
(i) passenger verification at airports
(ii) booking train tickets
(iii) casting your vote in elections
Who was eligible to receive 5 kg food grains free of cost under PMGKAY programme till December 2022?
G7 is a conglomeration of seven nations of the world. G7 includes, UK, USA, France and Germany. In addition, which three other nations are its members?
The Indian film RRR won the Golden Globe award this year for
__________.
The full form of GPT used in ChatGPT is __________.
The labour force participation rate during the pandemic __________.
Pabuji Ki Phach, a form of Rajasthani Folk music portrays the works and life of Pabuji who was an integral personality for the _________.
In which of the following states is Sunabeda sanctuary located ?
How many seats in the Lok Sabha are reserved for members from SC and ST?
In which of the following ecosystems, the pyramid of biomass is ‘inverted’ in shape?
The recently published book by Salman Rushdie is _____________.
Which of the following Statements is CORRECT?
The 5G Spectrum is related to _________.
The current President of India belongs to which of the following Scheduled Tribe communities?
Polar light is the atmospheric phenomenon in which undulating waves of green, purple and red lights dance across the sky due to the solar wind movements. The formal scientific name of this phenomenon in Earth's artic region is _____________.
India aims to generate ___________ of their energy from non-fossil sources by 2030.
In 2022, two new communities were added to the Scheduled Tribes list in the state of ______.
The Nobel Prize for Economics in 2022 was awarded for _________.
Loss of smell due to the Coronavirus disease is known as _______.
The Sangeet Natak Academy recognises eight styles of Indian dance
forms. Which of the following dance forms is NOT among the listed eight?
The National Family Health Survey 5 found evidence of shifting sex-ratio in the country. Which of the following statements is correct as per the evidence found?
The first Asian to win Nobel Prize in Literature is _______.
Climate scientists are predicting the drying out of the Amazon rainforest through the term, _________
The country that has been elected recently to the UN Security Council to succeed India as a non-permanent member for a two-year term is _______.
The winner of Booker Prize 2022 is ________.
UNFCCC convention has been signed by _______
Which countries have the distinction of winning consecutive editions of the FIFA Football World Cup?
The first recepient of the prestigious Jnanpith Award is _______.
The Government of India has amended the legal age for ____________.
Which of the following mountain peaks in not part of the TransHimalayan Range?
Who was the first Indian to be appointed as the first Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army?
FIH Nations Cup was won by India in 2022 in which of the following sporting events?
In a triangular shaped bus station, there is space for 279 buses in the first row, 277 in the second, 275 in the third and so on. There is space for 5 buses in the last row. How many rows are there in the bus station?
Solution
The first row has 279 buses, and the second row has 277 buses, the third row has 275 buses...and so on
This forms a decreasing A.P with a common difference of 2
The first term of A.P, a = 279, common difference = -2 and last term $$a_n$$ = 5
We know, in an AP $$a_n=a+\left(n-1\right)d$$
=> 5 = 279 + (n-1)*(-2)
=> (n-1)*2 = 274
=> n-1 = 137
Therefore, n = 138
A total of 138 rows are there in the bus station.
The answer is option A.
Find the value of k if the points A(2, 3), B(4, k) and C(6, -3) are collinear.
Solution
The points A(2, 3), B(4, k) and C(6, -3) are collinear means they lie on a single line.
Let the equation of line be y = mx + c (General form of a linear equation with slope m )
This line will pass through all three points A, B and C.
By substituting values of coordinates of A, B and C in the given line we get
3 = 2m + c ------ (1)
-3 = 6m + c ------ (2)
Subtracting (2) from (1), we get
=> 6 = -4m
m = -1.5
Substituting m = -1.5, we get
3 = -3 + c
c = 6
Equation of line is y = -1.5x + 6
Point B(4,k) passes through the line.
=> k = -1.5*4 + 6
=> k = 0
The answer is option A.
Three cubes of volume $$1cm^{3}$$ , $$216cm^{3}$$ and $$512cm^{3}$$ are melted to form a new cube. What is the diagonal of the new cube?
Solution
The volume of the new cube is equal to the sum of volumes of the three cubes i.e., volume of the new cube = 1+216+512 = 729 $$cm^3$$
The volume of cube of side a is given by $$a^3$$
=> $$a^3$$ = 729
=> a = 9
Therefore, the side of new cube is 9 cm.
Length of diagonal of cube = $$\sqrt{3}a$$
Length of diagonal of new cube = $$9\sqrt{3}$$ cm
The answer is option A.
Statement: Either A is 200 metres from B and B is 100 metres from C or A is 300 metres from C.
Which of the following ordered relation is not compatible with the given statement?
(i) A is 200 metres from B and B is 100 metres from C.
(ii) A is 300 metres from C.
(iii) A is not 200 metres from B and B is not 100 metres from C.
(iv) A is not 300 metres from C.
Solution
Let Statement P: A is 200 metres from B, B is 100 metres from C, and statement Q: A is 300 metres from C.
In the question, it is given either statement P or statement Q is true.
All of the following statements are compatible with the given statement.
1. If P is true, Q is not true.
2. If Q is true, P is not true.
3. Neither P nor Q are true.
4. If P is not true, Q may be true or false.
5. If Q is not true, Q may be true or false.
Option B, i.e. statements (i) and (iv) represents the condition given in statement 1.
Option C, i.e. statements (iii) and (ii) represents the condition given in statement 4.
Option D, i.e. statements (ii) and (iii) represents the condition given in statement 2.
Option A is not in line with any of the given statements.
Therefore, the answer is option A.
Gopal is looking for his wife Shilu. He went 90 metres in the east before turning to his right. He went 20 metres before turning to his right again. He walked 30 metres further to look for Shilu at his uncle’s place, but was told that Shilu has already left. Disappointed he went 100 metres to his north before meeting Shilu. How many metres did Gopal walk to meet his wife from the starting point?
Solution
The path of Gopal will look like as shown in figure.
Gopal started from A and went 90 meters to reach B(in the east direction).
Later, he went 20 meters from B to C by turning right(in the south direction).
Later, he went 30 meters from C to D by turning right(in the west direction).
D is the location of Shilu's uncle's house.
=> He went from D to F 100 meters(in the north direction).
Gopal met Shilu at point F.
Therefore, from starting point distance between A and F = $$\sqrt{\left(60\right)^2+\left(80\right)^2}$$
=> $$\sqrt{3600+6400}$$ = 100 meters.
The answer is option D.
In a class, daily three subjects A, B, and C are read. 21% of the students read subject A, 27% of the students read B and 34% read C. 15% of the students read A and B, 14% of students read B and C, 13% read A and C, 5% do not read any of the three subjects, the percentage of students who read all the three subjects is:
Solution
We are asked to find the percentage of students who read all three subjects (A, B, and C).
The formula for the union of three sets is:
∣A∪B∪C∣=∣A∣+∣B∣+∣C∣−∣A∩B∣−∣B∩C∣−∣A∩C∣+∣A∩B∩C∣
∣A∣=21%, ∣B∣=27%, ∣C∣=34% ∣A∩B∣=15%, ∣B∩C∣=14%, ∣A∩C∣=13% and 5% of students don't read any of the three subjects, so
∣A∪B∪C∣=95%.
Substituting these values into the inclusion-exclusion formula:
95 = 21 + 27 + 34 − 15 − 14 − 13 +∣A∩B∩C∣
∣A∩B∩C∣= 95 − 40 = 55%
At a university, the faculty-to-student ratio is 1:9. If two-thirds of the students are female and one-quarter of the faculty is female, what fraction of the total university population (students and faculty combined) is female?
Solution
Share
It is given that faculty to student ratio = 1:9
Let the number of faculty be 100a, so students will be 900a
=> Two-thirds of students are female = $$\ \dfrac{2}{3}\times900$$a = 600a
=> Therefore, male students = 300a
Also, one-quarter of the faculty is female = $$\ \dfrac{1}{4}\times100$$a = 25a
Therefore, male faculty = 75a
The ratio of female students and faculty out of the total students and faculty = $$\dfrac{\left(600a+25a\right)\ }{1000a}$$
=> ratio = $$\ \dfrac{5}{8}$$
The answer is option D.
A manufacturer has 600 litres of a 12% solution of acid. How many litres (x) of a 30% acid solution must be added to it so that acid content in the resulting mixture will be more than 15% but less than 18%?
Solution
It is given that solution 1 contains 12% acid in 600 litres, and solution 2 contains 30% acid in x litres
=> Acid in solution 1 = $$\ \frac{12}{100}\times600$$ = 72 litres
=> Acid in solution 2 = $$\ \frac{30}{100}\times$$ x = 0.3x litres
In the final mixture, acid quantity = (72+0.3x)litres
It is given that the acid content in the resulting mixture will be more than 15% but less than 18%
The equation of acid content will be = 15% of (600+x) < 72+0.3x < 18% of (600+x) { Final mixture will have a volume of 600+x litres}
=> 90+0.15x < 72+0.3x < 108 + 0.18x
So solving both sides
=> 18 < 0.15x and 0.12x < 36
Therefore, x lies in 120 < x < 300
If we change the shape of an object from a sphere to a cylinder, then the volume of cylinder will ___________.
Solution
Volume is a scalar quantity expressing the amount of three-dimensional space enclosed by a close body.
When we reshape a solid into another solid, the quantity of material is the same, so the volume of the solid remains unchanged.
Therefore, if we change the shape of an object from a sphere to a cylinder, the volume of the cylinder will remain unchanged.
The answer is option D.
Ashok said that he was born on 29 February 1900. What birthday did he celebrate in the year 2000?
Solution
In order for a year to qualify as a leap year, it must be divisible by 4. If it is a centurial year, it must also be divisible by 400.
Since 1900 is a century year so it must be divisible by 400, but it is not divisible by 400.
Therefore, Ashok is lying that he was born on 29 February 1900 as it is not a leap year.
The answer is option B.
A trader has a weighing scale that shows 1200 gram for a kilogram. He further marks up his cost price by 10%. Then the net profit percentage is:
Solution
Let the cost price of 1000 grams be Rs. 1000,
The weighing scale shows 1200 grams for 1000 grams which means he sells 1000 gms at a cost price of 1200 gms.
He will get Rs. 1200 for selling 1000 grams.
It is given that he further marks up his cost by 10%, he is selling 1000 gms at 1200*(1.1), i.e. Rs 1320
Therefore, the net profit percentage = $$\frac{1320-1000\ }{1000}\times100$$ = 32%
The answer is option B.
What is the value of $$3^5+\dfrac{1}{3^5}$$?
Solution
The value of $$3^5+\dfrac{1}{3^5}$$
=> $$\dfrac{3^5}{1}+\dfrac{1}{3^5}$$
LCM is $$3^5$$
=> $$\dfrac{\left(3^5\right)^2+1}{3^5}$$
=> $$\ \dfrac{3^{10}+1}{3^5}$$
The answer is option B.
What is the decimal equivalent of $$\left(\dfrac{1}{4}\right)^2$$ ?
Solution
We can write any fraction where the denominator is a hundred as given below
$$\ \dfrac{1}{2}$$ = $$\ \dfrac{50}{100}$$
$$\ \dfrac{1}{4}$$ = $$\ \dfrac{25}{100}$$
To find $$\left(\dfrac{1}{4}\right)^2$$
=> $$\left(\dfrac{25}{100}\right)^2$$
=> $$\ \dfrac{625}{10000}$$
=> 0.0625
The answer is option C.
A combination lock has numbers from 0 to 30 and takes a three-number combination to open it. If you try all the combinations that have the identical numbers, like 12-12-12 or 7-7-7, what is the probability you will open the lock?
Solution
There are 31 possible combinations where all three numbers are identical(e.g. 0-0-0, 1-1-1, 2-2-2,.......,30-30-30).
Total combinations possible for the lock when numbers are from 0 to 30 = 31*31*31
Hence, the probability of opening the lock by trying all the combinations with identical numbers is
=> possible outcomes / total number of outcomes = $$\dfrac{31}{31\times\ 31\times\ 31}$$ = $$\dfrac{1}{31\times\ 31}$$
=> $$\dfrac{1}{961}$$
The answer is option A.
A group of hikers is planning a trip that will take them up a mountain using one route and back down using another route. They plan to travel down the mountain at a rate of one and a half times the rate they will use on the way up, but the time each route will take is the same. If they will go up the mountain at a rate of 4 km per day and it will take them two days, how many kilometres long is the route down the mountain?
Solution
Let the speed of the group when going up be A and therefore, the speed of the group when going down = $$\dfrac{3A}{2}$$
=> Time taken by both routes is the same, and it is given that they go up in 2 days.
=> Speed of group when going up = A = 4km/day
Therefore, speed of the group when going down = $$\dfrac{3A}{2}$$ = 6km/day
Since, the time taken is the same, time taken going down = 2 days
Hence, the length of route down the mountain = 6*2 = 12 km
The answer is option A.
ABC company follows a certain procedure that requires two tasks to be completed independently in order for a job to be done. On any given day, there is a 7/8 probability that task 1 will be completed on time, and a 3/5 probability that task 2 will be completed on time. On a certain day, what is the probability that task 1 will be completed on time, but task 2 will not?
Solution
Since both tasks are independent, therefore the sum of the probability of completion of task 1 + probability of not completing of task 1 = 1
The probability that task 1 will be completed on time is 7/8, and the probability that it will not be completed on time is $$1-\dfrac{7}{8}$$, i.e. $$\dfrac{1}{8}$$
Also, the probability that task 2 will be completed on time is 3/5, and the probability that task 2 will not be completed on time is $$1-\dfrac{3}{5}$$, i.e. $$\dfrac{2}{5}$$
To find the probability that task 1 will be completed on time but task 2 will not, we can multiply these probabilities together:
Probability = (Probability of task 1 being completed on time) * (Probability of task 2 not being completed on time)
Probability = $$\left(\dfrac{7}{8}\right)\left(\dfrac{2}{5}\right)=\dfrac{7}{20}$$
Therefore, the probability that task 1 will be completed on time, but task 2 will not, is $$\dfrac{7}{20}$$
The answer is option D.
A bank customer had Rs. 100 in his account. He then made 6 withdrawals, totalling Rs. 100. He kept a record of these withdrawals, and the balance remaining in the account, as follows: (See the following table). When he added up the columns as above, he assumed that he must owe Re. 1 to the bank. Was he right in making this inference from the data?
Solution
Take a closer look at the data provided in the table:
The table shows that the customer had Rs. 100 in his account initially and made a total of 6 withdrawals amounting to Rs. 100. The table did not show that the customer made any deposits or added any interest to the account during this time.
The "Debit" column shows the amount of each withdrawal, while the "Credit" column is not present, suggesting that no money was added to the account. The "Balance" column shows the remaining balance in the account after each withdrawal.
When we add up the "Debit" column, we get a total of Rs. 100, which matches the total amount of the withdrawals. However, there is no "Credit" column, so the total credit is zero. When we subtract the total debit from the total credit, we get a balance of -Rs. 100. This means that the customer owes Rs. 100 to the bank.
However, the customer inferred that he owes only Re. 1 to the bank. This inference is incorrect, as the total balance owed to the bank is -Rs. 100, not -Rs. 1. Therefore, the customer was not right in making this inference from the data.
The minute hand of a watch is 1.5 cm long. How far does its tip move in 40 minutes?
Solution
In this case, the radius of the circle traced by the minute hand is 1.5 cm.
Circumference = 2πr = 2π(1.5) = 3π cm
The minute hand covers this distance in 60 minutes.
Let x be the distance covered by the tip of the minute hand in 40 minutes.
$$\dfrac{x}{3\pi\ }=\dfrac{40}{60}$$
x = 2π = 6.28 cm
Therefore, the tip of the minute hand moves a distance of 6.28 cm in 40 minutes.
The answer is option A.
Closing prices for a certain stock were recorded each day for a week as follows: Monday: 17.94; Tuesday: 18.19; Wednesday: 18.06; Thursday: 17.54 and Friday: 17.38. If the monthly average (arithmetic mean) was 18.43 and the standard deviation was 0.27, how many days during this week did the closing price fall within two standard deviations from the average?
Solution
Closing prices for stocks on each day of the week are given
Monday - 17.94
Tuesday - 18.19
Wednesday - 18.06
Thursday - 17.54
Friday - 17.38
Given average is 18.43 and the standard deviation is 0.27.
Two standard deviations = (2)(0.27) = 0.54
Two standard deviations below the mean = 18.43 - 0.54 = 17.89
Two standard deviations above the mean = 18.43 + 0.54 = 18.97
Values should lie between 17.89 and 18.97.
Days during this week, the closing price falls within two standard deviations from the average: Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday values are in the given range.
Therefore, the answer is 3.
Raman bought two items, A & B, from a shop. He paid Rs 1680 including GST of 12% for A and Rs 1265 including GST of 15% for B. The shopkeeper did not give him the receipt. Find the amount of GST not paid by the shopkeeper to the Government.
Solution
It is given, Raman bought A at a price inclusive of 12% GST = Rs 1680
Let us assume the selling price of A be P then $$P\left(1+\ \frac{GST\ \%}{100}\right)$$ = 1680
=> $$P\left(1+\ \frac{12\ }{100}\right)$$ = 1680
=> $$P\ =\ 1680\times\frac{100\ }{112}$$
Therefore, P = Rs. 1500 and GST on item A = Rs. 180
Similarly, for item B
Let us assume the selling price of B be Q, then $$Q\left(1+\ \frac{GST\ \%}{100}\right)$$ = 1265
=> $$Q\left(1+\ \frac{15\ }{100}\right)$$ = 1265
=> $$Q\ =\ 1265\times\frac{100\ }{115}$$
Therefore, Q = Rs. 1100 and GST on item B = Rs. 165
Hence, the amount of GST not paid by the shopkeeper to the Government = 180+165 = Rs.345
The answer is option C.
The sum of a two-digit number and the number obtained by reversing the digits is 66.The digits of the number differ by 2. How many two-digit numbers meet these conditions?
Solution
Let the two-digit number be of the form ab.
Number = 10a+b ----- (1)
On reversing, the number will be ba, i.e. 10b+a ----- (2)
It is given that sum of the two-digit number and the number obtained by reversing the digits is 66.
=> 10a+b+10b+a = 66
=> 11a + 11b = 66
=> a + b = 6
Also, |a - b| = 2
There are two cases possible
Case 1: a > b
=> a - b = 2 and a + b = 6
=> Solving, we get a = 4 and b = 2
Case 2: b > a
=> b - a = 2 and a + b = 6
=> Solving, we get a = 2 and b = 4
Therefore, a total of 2 numbers are possible 24 and 42.
The answer is option D.
The table represents the results of the annual performance appraisal in a company. Each individual’s performance is rated on a scale of 1 - 20 and it is represented in the table under parameters like designation and experience.
For example, 6 managers with an experience of 2 years, got an appraisal in the range from 12 - 14 with at least one of them getting a 12 and one of them getting a 14. Answer following three questions based on this table
Among those with three and four years of experience, the average performance appraisal score of managers differs from that of engineers by ______ points
Solution
Maximum difference(at most):
Total engineers are 8, and managers are 15. To find the maximum difference for average appraisal score, if we take minimum values for managers, it will eventually be less compared to when we take minimum values for engineers. Therefore, we take the minimum possible values for managers and maximum possible values for engineers. (As any number divided by 15 will be very less, compared to 8)
Engineers
For engineers with 3 years of experience from 3 engineers, one will have an appraisal score of 12; the other two will have a score equal to 16.
So, a total score = 12+16+16 = 44
For engineers with 4 years of experience, from 5 engineers, one will
have an appraisal score of 9, other four will have a score equal to 15.
So, a total score = 5+15+15+15+15 = 65
Therefore, the average appraisal score is $$\ \frac{44+65}{3+5}$$ = 14.125
Managers
For managers with 3 years of
experience from 10 managers, one will have an appraisal score of 12;
the other nine will have a score equal to 10.
So, a total score = 12+10*9 = 102
For managers with 4 years of
experience from 5 managers, one will have an appraisal score of 13;
the other four will have a score equal to 10.
So, a total score = 13+10*4 = 53
Therefore, the average appraisal score is $$\ \frac{102+53}{10+5}$$ = 10.2
The average performance appraisal score of managers differs from that of engineers by at most (14.125-10.2) points
=> 3.79 points
At the most, what percentage of the employees of the company have an appraisal score equal to or more than 15?
Solution
Consider only cases where the performance appraisal score lies in the range of 15 or above.
For engineers with 3 years of experience from 3 engineers, at least one will have an appraisal score of 12 other two can have a score above or equal to 15. Therefore, there are at most two engineers with 3 years of experience.
For engineers with 4 years of experience from 5 engineers, at least one will have an appraisal score of 9, the other four can have a score above or equal to 15. Therefore, there are at most four engineers with 4 years of experience.
For Managers with 1 year of experience from 6 managers, all will have a score above or equal to 15.
Therefore, a total of 12 employees can have an appraisal score equal to or more than 15
Required percentage = $$\frac{12}{40}\times100=30\%$$
The answer is option A.
What is the minimum average appraisal score for all the managers in the company?
Solution
With 1 year of experience from 6 managers, one will have an appraisal score of 17 other five can have a score equal to 15.
=> Total score = 15*5+17 = 92
With 2 years of experience from 6 managers, one will have an appraisal score of 14 other five can have a score equal to 12.
=> Total score = 12*5+14 = 74
With 3 years of experience from 10 managers, one will have an appraisal score of 12 other nine can have a score equal to 10.
=> Total score = 10*9+12 = 102
With 4 years of experience from 5 managers, one will have an appraisal score of 13 other four can have a score equal to 10.
=> Total score = 10*4+13 = 53
Total score of all managers = 92+74+102+53 = 321
Total number of managers = 27
Therefore, the minimum average appraisal score for all the managers in the company = $$\ \frac{321}{27}$$ = 11.89
The answer is option A.
The following chart shows the projected number (in billion) and monetary value of UPI transactions (in Rs Trillions) in India from 2022-23 to 2026-27.
Read the chart carefully and answer the following three questions.
What will be the percentage decline (approximate) in the average value an UPI transaction in 2026-27 compared to 2022-23?
Solution
Converting the data given in bar chart into a tabular form -
The percentage decline (approximate) in the average value an UPI transaction in 2026-27 compared to 2022-23 = $$\left(\dfrac{1573-861\ }{1573}\times100\right)$$ = $$\left(\dfrac{712\ }{1573}\times100\right)$$ = 45.2%
The answer is option B.
What will be the average value of an UPI transaction in 2023-24?
Solution
Converting the data given in bar chart into a tabular form -
The average value of an UPI transaction in 2023-24 equals Rs. 1354
The answer is option D.
What will be the decline in the average value of an UPI transaction in 2025-26 compared to 2023-24?
Solution
Converting the data given in bar chart into a tabular form -
The decline in the average value of an UPI transaction in 2025-26 compared to 2023-24
=> Rs. 1354 - Rs. 1000
=> Rs. 354
The five bar graphs record the number of vehicles exceeding the speed limit at four locations over a five-day period. Location 1 is a residential street with a 20 kmph limit, location 2 has a 30 kmph limit, location 3 a 50 kmph limit and location 4 (a toll road) a 70 kmph limit.
(Note: kmph- Km per hour)
On how many days in locations 1 and 2 are there more than half of the total number of vehicles exceeding speed limit, on that particular day?
Solution
Converting the data given in the chart into a tabular form:
1. Monday - Location(1) - 8 vehicles and Location(2) - 5 vehicles
Total vehicles on all locations on Monday exceeding the speed limit = 8+5+0+1 = 14
Total vehicles from location(1) and (2) exceeding the speed limit = 13(more than half of total)
2. Tuesday - Location(1) - 2 vehicles and Location(2) - 4 vehicles
Total vehicles on all locations on Tuesday exceeding the speed limit = 2+4+7+10 = 23
Total vehicles from locations (1) and (2) exceeding the speed limit = 6(not More than half of the total)
3. Wednesday - Location(1) - 2 vehicles and Location(2) - 6 vehicles
Total vehicles on all locations on Wednesday exceeding the speed limit = 2+6+5+1 = 14
Total vehicles from location(1) and (2) exceeding the speed limit = 8(more than half of total)
4. Thursday - Location(1) - 7 vehicles and Location(2) - 4 vehicles
Total vehicles on all locations on Thursday exceeding the speed limit = 7+4+2+8 = 21
Total vehicles from location(1) and (2) exceeding the speed limit = 11(more than half of total)
5. Friday - Location(1) - 4 vehicles and Location(2) - 5 vehicles
Total vehicles on all locations on Friday exceeding the speed limit = 4+5+3+4 = 16
Total vehicles from location(1) and (2) exceeding the speed limit = 9(more than half of total)
Therefore, in a total of 4 days, more than half of the total number of vehicles exceeded the speed limit in locations 1 and 2.
The answer is option C.
On what day or days were the least number of vehicles recorded as exceeding a speed limit?
Solution
Converting the data given in the chart into a tabular form -
Monday and Wednesday had the least number of vehicles recorded exceeding the speed limit.
The answer is option B.
Which of the following statement is true?
Solution
1. Monday - Total vehicles on all locations on Monday exceeding the speed limit = 8+5+0+1 = 14
2. Tuesday - Total vehicles on all locations on Tuesday exceeding the speed limit = 2+4+7+10 = 23
3. Wednesday - Total vehicles on all locations on Wednesday exceeding the speed limit = 2+6+5+1 = 14
4. Thursday - Total vehicles on all locations on Thursday exceeding the speed limit = 7+4+2+8 = 21
5. Friday - Total vehicles on all locations on Friday exceeding the speed limit = 4+5+3+4 = 16
Therefore, only option A is true - Records for Friday $$\geq 15$$
For the following questions answer them individually
Which word from the given options is most similar in meaning to the word in capitals when used as a verb?
LOCK
Solution
When used as a verb, "blind" means to make someone unable to see or to obscure someone's vision.
"Gaze" means to look steadily and intently, often with admiration or fascination.
"Bold" means showing an ability to take risks; confident and courageous.
Therefore, the word that is most similar in meaning to the capitalised word when used as a verb is "engage", which means to participate or become involved in an activity or conversation.
The answer is option B.
Not only did the students include full sentences from the source without using quotation marks, but they also fail to properly cite paraphrased material.
Solution
In the original sentence, there was a tense inconsistency between the verbs "include" and "fail." The verb "include" is in the past tense, while the verb "fail" is in the present tense, creating confusion about the timing of these actions.
To correct the sentence, we must ensure that the verbs are in the same past or present tense, depending on the context. Since the sentence refers to actions that have already happened, we must use the past tense for both verbs. Therefore, the present tense "fail" should be changed to the past tense "failed," creating tense consistency in the sentence.
Correct sentence: "Not only did the students include full sentences from the source without using quotation marks, but they also failed to properly cite paraphrased material."
The answer is option B.
Identify the correct order of the following statements to make a coherent paragraph. The lead sentence has been given.
Large-scale and mega sport events (SMEs), such as Olympic Games and FIFA World Cups, have been more frequently hosted in emerging nations.
A. There is a need to delve deeper into the types of legacies anticipated or realized by emerging nations as a result of hosting sport events, and to determine if these differ from those of established nations.
B. This has largely been driven by the assumption that their legacy provides solutions to economic, social, cultural, or political challenges.
C. Bidding and hosting SMEs is considered an object of policy for many emerging nations, with SMEs viewed as key factors in local and national development strategies.
D. However there is often a difference in the types of legacies anticipated or realized within emerging nations.
Solution
The lead sentence should introduce the paragraph's main idea, and the supporting sentences should follow in a coherent order to develop and expand on that main idea. In the given question, the lead sentence establishes that large-scale and mega sport events have been increasingly hosted in emerging nations.
The following sentence, C, explains that bidding and hosting such events is a policy objective for many emerging nations and that they are seen as key factors in local and national development strategies. This statement provides context for why emerging nations are hosting these events.
Sentence B builds on this by explaining that the belief that the legacy of these events will provide solutions to economic, social, cultural, or political challenges is driving the trend.
Sentence D highlights the fact that there may be differences in the types of legacies that emerging nations experience compared to established nations. This statement provides a nuanced perspective and adds depth to the discussion.
Finally, Sentence A suggests that there is a need to examine the types of legacies emerging nations anticipate or realize from hosting these events and to determine if they differ from those of established nations. This statement introduces an area of inquiry and critical thinking regarding the topic.
Overall, the order of statements CBDA creates a well-structured and cohesive paragraph.
Read the following passage and carefully answer the question that follows:
Every year the lives of approximately 1.3 million people are cut short as a result of a road traffic crash. Between 20 and 50 million more people suffer non-fatal injuries, with many incurring a disability as a result of their injury. Road traffic injuries cause considerable economic losses to individuals, their families, and to nations as a whole. These losses arise from the cost of treatment as well as lost productivity for those killed or disabled by their injuries, and for family members who need to take time off work or school to care for the injured. Road traffic crashes cost most countries 3% of their gross domestic product.
What can be inferred from the passage?
Solution
Option A: The economic impact of road traffic crashes is limited to medical expenses.
The passage clearly states, "These losses arise from the cost of treatment as well as lost productivity for those killed or disabled by their injuries." Therefore the economic impact of road traffic crashes is not just limited to medical expenses. We cannot infer it.
Option B: Disability is not a common result of road traffic injuries.
The passage clearly states, "with many incurring a disability as a result of their injury." It can be inferred that disability is a common result of road traffic injuries. Therefore, this is opposite to what is given in the passage.
Option C: Non-fatal injuries from road traffic crashes are not a significant issue.
The passage clearly states."Between 20 and 50 million more people suffer non-fatal injuries" so it can be inferred that it is a significant issue. Therefore, this is wrong.
Therefore, the correct answer is D, road traffic crashes can be prevented with the right measures.
From the given options, option D is the correct choice.
Fill in the blanks to complete the sentence:
The "halo effect" is the name given to the _____ for a positive impression in one area to ____ to a positive impression in another.
Solution
The sentence mentioned talks about the impression created in one area impacting another.
The most suitable pair of words to convey the idea behind a given sentence are tendency and lead. The word "tendency" fits well with the idea of an impression created in one place, while "lead" accurately represents that a positive impression in one area can influence a positive impression in another.
The answer is option D.
Fill in the blank to complete the sentence:
What is the time ____ your watch?
Solution
The most fitting preposition to complete the sentence is "by" because "by your watch" carries the idiomatic sense of "in accordance with." Essentially, this implies that the individual is inquiring about the time that is presented or exhibited through his/her watch.
Therefore, the answer is option A.
Select the option that is most opposite in meaning for the word underlined in the statement given below:
He managed to insinuate himself into the wealthy circles of the city through his knack of telling unusual stories.
Solution
The word "insinuate" means to suggest or imply something in an indirect or subtle way. In this context, it means that he managed to gain entry into wealthy circles by telling unusual stories.
The opposite of "insinuate" would be a more direct and overt approach. "Evince" means to display or demonstrate clearly and openly.
Option A: "Wedge" means to create a division between two things or people. This is not the opposite of insinuate.
Option B: "Attach" means to connect or join something to something else, which is not the opposite of "insinuate".
Option C: "Promote" means to encourage or support the growth or development of something, which is not the opposite of "insinuate".
Therefore, none of the options A, B, or C is opposite in meaning to "insinuate".
The answer is option D.
Spot the Error.
He said that he was suffering from fever since three days.
Solution
The given sentence is in the past tense and talks about an event that started in the past and continued up to another point in time [present/past]. The correct way to talk about such an event is to use the perfect continuous tense, which is formed using the "have/has/had been" + verb-ing form.
The sentence "He said that he was suffering from fever since three days" uses "was" [simple past tense]. However, since the sentence talks about an event that started in the past and continued to the present, it should use the present perfect continuous tense instead. The correct construction would be "has been suffering."
Therefore, the correct sentence would be, "He said that he has been suffering from a fever since three days."
Therefore, Option B has an error.
Fill in the blank to complete the sentence:
Such a modern office building looks ________ in the quaint little town.
Solution
The word "incongruous" means not in harmony or keeping with the surroundings. In this context, it means that the modern office building looks out of place or does not fit in with the quaint little town.
"Bland" means lacking in strong features or character, "imaginary" means existing only in the imagination, and "suspicious" means having or showing a cautious distrust of someone or something.
The answer is option B.
Fill in the blanks to complete the sentence:
No country should interfere ______the internal affairs ______another country,
Solution
Option C, "in; of" is the correct answer. The sentence should read, "No country should interfere in the internal affairs of another country." This means that no country should get involved in another country's domestic policies or decisions.
The preposition "in" refers to involvement within something. In this case, it refers to the internal affairs of another country. The preposition "of" refers to belonging to or relating to something. In this case, the internal affairs of another country belong to that country and are specific to that country's situation.
Option A, "with; in" is incorrect because "with" does not fit the context of the sentence. "Interfere with" means to disrupt or prevent the normal operation of something, but the sentence discusses involvement in something, not disruption.
Option B, "with; for" is incorrect because "for" does not fit the context of the sentence. The sentence is not discussing a purpose or objective but rather an action that should not be taken.
Option D, "in; in" is also incorrect. The preposition "in" is incorrect. In this case, the internal affairs of another country belong to that country and are specific to that country's situation. The correct preposition should be "for" in the second blank.
The answer is option C.
Fill in the blanks to complete the sentence:
What made the palace ______, was that it glittered and ________.
Solution
Option A ("Special; magical") is incorrect because the sentence already mentions that the palace glittered, and adding "magical" would be redundant and unnecessary.
Option B ("appear; hid") is incorrect because "appear" does not fit the context of the sentence. The sentence is trying to convey that the palace was special.
Option D ("light; lit") is also incorrect because the word "light" is not used as an adjective to describe the palace. It is true that "lit" means illuminated, but it does not accurately convey the sense of glittering that is mentioned in the sentence.
Therefore, the correct answer is C, riveting; sparkled, which accurately describes the captivating effect of the palace's glittering and sparkling appearance.
Select the synonym for the word underlined in the statement given below:
A range of Industrial and investment commitments were made by the leaders to assuage public concern and win votes.
Solution
The word "assuage" means to make an unpleasant feeling less intense or to satisfy a desire or need. Synonyms of "assuage" include alleviate, ease, relieve, mitigate, and soothe. Among the given options, "alleviate" is the synonym of "assuage". "Force" means to make someone do something against their will, "aggravate" means to make a problem or situation worse, and "accentuate" means to emphasize or highlight something.
The answer is option D.
Spot the Error
It is hard to find linguistic universals amid this worlds' dazzling variety.
Solution
The error in the sentence is in the word worlds'. It should be world's with an apostrophe to indicate that it is possessive.
Correct sentence: It is hard to find linguistic universals amid this world's dazzling variety.
The answer is option A.
Fill in the blanks to complete the sentence:
The_________artificial intelligence scene is an exception to the _________ mood of the technology ecosystem.
Solution
The sentence is discussing the current state of the artificial intelligence scene, and how it differs from the overall mood of the technology ecosystem
Option A is the correct answer. The word "buzzing" implies a lively and active scene for artificial intelligence, while "downbeat" conveys a more negative or pessimistic overall mood. The remaining answer choices do not form a coherent sentence.
Spot the Error.
Most of us do not yet understand that news is to the mind what sugar is to the body
Solution
The sentence is grammatically correct, with no spelling, punctuation or grammar errors. It compares news and sugar, stating that news affects the mind similarly to how sugar affects the body. The use of "to" is correct in both instances: "sugar is to the body" and "news is to the mind". The phrase "do not yet understand" is also grammatically correct and conveys the meaning that most people still have not realised or comprehended the comparison being made. Therefore, there is no error in the sentence.
Which word from the given options is the most opposite in meaning to the word in capitals?
PITHY
Solution
The word 'pithy' means concise and to the point. Therefore, the option that is the most opposite in meaning would be the one that means long-winded or wordy, which is option A - verbose. Option B, cogent, means clear and logical and can be synonymous with pithy in some contexts. Option C, tepid, means lukewarm or lacking enthusiasm, and option D, terse, means using very few words, which is similar to pithy.
The answer is option A.
Fill in the blanks to complete the sentence:
I want to run through the jungle, the wind ___ my hair and the sand ___ my feet.
Solution
The correct answer is option D, "in" and "at."
In the given sentence, the phrase "the wind in my hair" means that the speaker wants to feel the wind blowing through their hair. Similarly, the phrase "the sand at my feet" means that the speaker wants to feel the sand beneath their feet. Therefore, the correct prepositions to use in the sentence are "in" and "at," respectively.
The other options are not appropriate because they do not convey the intended meaning of the sentence. "With" and "under" do not fit the context of running through the jungle and do not make sense in this sentence. "On" and "over" could work in some contexts, but they do not accurately convey the desired meaning of feeling the wind in one's hair and the sand at one's feet.
Read the following passage and carefully answer the question that follows:
We do not like to think of the diagnosis process as causing as many problems as it is trying to solve. However, when the complaints are more chronic than acute, there is growing concern that a plethora of diagnostic tests and procedures have raised expectations of always finding a precise answer or explanation. When that is not possible, or tests are not recommended as the first line of attack, a provider's clinical observations and reasoning can seem less than satisfactory. The team shared new thinking about better ways to engage with patients when diagnostic certainty is not possible and how to create strong, trusting relationships that break from the mold of “doing something” or “doing nothing at all.”
Which of the following can be concluded based on the passage?
Solution
The passage suggests that there is growing concern that a reliance on diagnostic tests and procedures can create unrealistic expectations for finding a precise answer or explanation, particularly in cases where complaints are chronic rather than acute. This can lead to dissatisfaction with a healthcare provider's clinical observations and reasoning. The passage also suggests that there is a need for new approaches to engage with patients when diagnostic certainty is not possible and to build strong, trusting relationships with them. Therefore, it can be concluded that there are concerns about the overreliance on diagnostic tests and a need for new approaches to engage with patients in cases where diagnostic certainty is not possible. In this regard, Option B is a valid conclusion.
The passage suggests that providers should find better ways to engage with patients when diagnostic certainty is not possible, indicating that dismissing patients' concerns without further investigation or referring the patient to another provider without providing any guidance are not viable solutions. Therefore, we can eliminate Options A and D. Similarly, Option C is contrary to the discussion - the passage highlights the concern that excessive testing may have raised patients' expectations of always finding a precise answer or explanation, which may not always be possible or recommended as the first line of attack.
Identify the correct order of the following statements to make a coherent paragraph. The lead sentence has been given.
Dholavira- the Harappan city - is the first Indus Civilisation site in India that received the World Heritage tag.
A. In fact, the maps suggest that the entire city was shaped like a parallelogram, while smaller compartments were shaped as squares or rectangles.
B. Probably they lead to sections that are still awaiting excavation.
C. Everything has been built in perfect shapes, although the purpose of some of these structures is unclear.
D. There were a few staircases going underground, but the entries are blocked with iron grids.
E. The geometric perfection of the Civilisation is visible throughout these ruins.
Solution
The paragraph starts by introducing Dholavira as the first Indus Civilization site in India to receive the World Heritage tag. It then goes on to describe the geometric perfection visible throughout the ruins and the use of perfect shapes for construction, even though the purpose of some structures is unclear. The next sentence describes the city's layout, which was shaped like a parallelogram with smaller compartments in the form of squares or rectangles. The passage then mentions the existence of a few underground staircases, which are blocked with iron grids, possibly leading to sections still awaiting excavation. Therefore, the correct order is ECADB.
We can identify that Statement E must follow the lead sentence since the phrase "these ruins" points towards the Dholavira site, and the broader idea of 'geometric perfection' is first introduced here. The author builds on this subject of geometry by highlighting how "everything has been built in perfect shapes" [Statement C]. This idea is further supplemented using the evidence from the site's map [Statement A], which supports the idea of how the landscape reflected 'geometric' patterns/shapes. Identifying these links should be sufficient to zero in on Option B as the correct choice.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option:
She is ______ of flying, so she is taking a bus to her nephew's wedding.
Solution
"Petrified" means extremely frightened or terrified, while "purified" means to make something clean or free from impurities. "Purified" is not appropriate in this context. "Petrifried" and "Purtified" are not valid words in English.
The answer is option B.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The negative impacts of climate change disproportionately affect women and girls, especially in the global south. This is not due to inherent vulnerability but the result of gender inequalities in the political, social and economic realms that intersect with other axes of social disadvantage, such as race, sexuality, gender identity and disability status. For example, during and after climate-related events, women and girls are more exposed to gender-based violence, and girls are less likely than boys to continue their education. When it comes to employment, women in developing countries are more likely to work in the informal sector, making their livelihoods more vulnerable to economic and environmental shocks.
Despite these challenges, women and girls have a crucial role in achieving the climate targets. Research demonstrates that due to socially prescribed gender roles, women assess risk differently to men and typically prioritise the welfare of their families and communities in resource-management decisions. Such differences in decision-making extend to national politics: a 2019 study found that national parliaments with more women pass more stringent climate policies.
Unfortunately, women continue to face barriers to equal participation in environmental decision-making, and women-led community organisations commonly struggle to access climate finance. Support for women’s initiatives and access to resources can drive effective climate action that meets the needs of communities.
While women, especially indigenous women and women in the global south, are leading frontline climate action and activism, they are underrepresented in environmental decision-making at all levels. Gender-differentiated tasks, including women’s responsibility for most unpaid household labour, and unequal power relations within families and communities, can limit women’s opportunities to participate in local environmental governance. At national and international levels, women continue to face glass ceilings that prevent them from reaching environmental leadership positions. Gender parity in national-level environmental decision-making is rare, and employees of environmental ministries are on average one-third women.
Gender-responsive policy measures can help to overcome these systemic barriers. Investment in social services, especially childcare, can lighten the load of unpaid household labour on women, as can flexible working policies and paid parental leave. Creating and enforcing laws and policies against sex and gender discrimination, can ensure that climate change spaces are inclusive and safe for all.
The author will NOT agree with which of the given options?
Solution
Let us examine the given choices:
Option A: {At national and international levels, women continue to face glass ceilings that prevent them from reaching environmental leadership positions.} The passage mentions that women face glass ceilings, or barriers, that prevent them from reaching environmental leadership positions at national and international levels. This implies that the author recognizes the existence of these glass ceilings and the need to address them.
Option B: The passage emphasizes the importance of promoting gender mainstreaming in climate change policies and programs, involving women in decision-making processes, and recognizing the unique needs, perspectives, and contributions of women and girls in climate action. This aligns with the idea of inclusivity in environmental decision-making, as stated in Option B.
Option C: The passage emphasizes that gender inequalities, including social, economic, and political factors, intersect with other forms of social disadvantage to limit women's participation in environmental decision-making. However, it does not place the responsibility solely on women themselves, but rather highlights systemic barriers and the need for gender-responsive policies and measures to address them. The passage discusses the importance of childcare policies and other supportive measures to facilitate women's engagement in environmental decision-making, indicating that lack of childcare policies is not the reason for limited participation but rather a barrier that needs to be addressed. Therefore, Option C cannot be inferred based on the discussion in the passage.
Option D: {Investment in social services, especially childcare, can lighten the load of unpaid household labour on women, as can flexible working policies and paid parental leave.} The passage mentions that investment in social services, including childcare, can help to alleviate the burden of unpaid household labour on women and facilitate their participation in environmental decision-making. This implies that the author recognizes the importance of childcare policies in supporting women's engagement in environmental decision-making.
Hence, Option C is the correct choice.
Which of the given options best represent the author’s purpose in writing the passage?
Solution
The passage discusses the disproportionate impact of climate change on women and girls, particularly in the global south, and the systemic barriers they face in participating in environmental decision-making. It highlights the crucial role of women and girls in achieving climate targets, the need for gender-responsive policies and measures, and the underrepresentation of women in environmental decision-making at various levels. This aligns with the overall theme of advocating for women's representation in climate change initiatives and decision-making, as stated in Option A.
Option B: While the passage discusses how women in developing countries are more likely to work in the informal sector, making their livelihoods more vulnerable to economic and environmental shocks, this is mentioned in the context of the negative impacts of climate change on women's economic vulnerabilities, rather than solely focusing on barriers to women's participation in the workforce in general.
Option C: Though the passage does mention that the negative impacts of climate change disproportionately affect women and girls, particularly in the global south, this is not the main argument of the passage. The passage primarily focuses on the systemic barriers that limit women's participation in environmental decision-making and the need for gender-responsive policies and measures, rather than solely discussing the differential impact of climate change on women and men.
Option D: The discussion on climate change initiatives is presented in the context of women's participation in the same. The primary focus of the passage is on advocating for women's representation in climate change initiatives and decision-making, and addressing the systemic barriers that limit women's participation in these processes.
Hence, Option A is the correct choice.
Which of the following is an assumption made by the author?
Solution
One of the assumptions made by the author is accurately presented in Option C: Informal economy adds to economic insecurity and inequity.
The passage mentions that women in developing countries are more likely to work in the informal sector, which makes their livelihoods more vulnerable to economic and environmental shocks. This implies that the author assumes that the informal economy contributes to economic insecurity and inequity, particularly for women in developing countries. The passage does not make the assumptions shown in Options A, B, or D. The author does not equate sex and gender discrimination (Option A), or exclusively associate climate change actions with parliaments (Option B), or explicitly state that the Global South has a higher incidence of informal economy (Option D).
Hence, Option C is the correct choice.
Which of the following can be inferred based on the passage?
Solution
Let us examine the given choices:
Options A and D: It has been stated in the passage that climate change "disproportionately affects women and girls." However, we cannot use this information to broadly claim that climate change affects "different groups differently" or that it affects "affects everyone." Furthermore, the author does not specify the scope of policies - they need not necessarily be "localised." Therefore, Options A and D are incorrect.
Option B: While the passage emphasises the need for more women representation at the national scale, it does not assert that "policies are only drafted by men."
Option C: This can be understood based on the following excerpt: {...a 2019 study found that national parliaments with more women pass more stringent climate policies...} The author hints at how involving women in the decision-making process could lead to stricter climate regulations.
Hence, Option C is the correct choice.
Which of these is NOT an argument used by the author to highlight the role of gender discrimination in environmental decision making?
Solution
Option A can be inferred from the following: "Support for women’s initiatives and access to resources can drive effective climate action that meets the needs of communities."
Similarly, the author uses the concept of gender and power relations when emphasising gender discrimination: " Gender-differentiated tasks, including women’s responsibility for most unpaid household labour, and unequal power relations within families." Therefore, Option B is not a suitable answer.
Option C is valid since the author presents childcare policies as a way to remedy the systemic barriers faced by women: "Investment in social services, especially childcare, can lighten the load of unpaid household labour on women, as can flexible working policies and paid parental leave."
Contrarily, Option D is not an idea used by the author to present his stance. Based on the passage provided, there is no explicit mention of the discontinuation of the education of girls or the consequent impact of this on gender disparity or systemic discrimination.
Hence, Option D is the correct choice.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The value of socialization through sports has long been recognized, which is one reason for state support of physical education in the schools and adult-organized children’s sports programs. The effects of sports socialization, however, are not always what the socializers expect. They are in fact quite controversial. From the mid-19th to the early 21st century, sports were alleged to train young athletes in self-discipline, teamwork, leadership, and other highly prized traits and behaviours. Empirical research has shown that involvement in sports can also inculcate a socially destructive desire to win at all costs. Depending on the values of the socializing agents, sports can encourage young people to play fairly or to cheat. The evidence suggests that the propensity to cheat increases with age and the level of competition.
Another important aspect of the experience of sports is emotion, the feelings that reflect athletes’ self-evaluation or expectation of their performance and their perception of others’ evaluations and expectations. Some of the feelings expressed are anticipatory, prior to performing. Pregame “butterflies in the stomach” are as familiar to an athlete as stage fright is to an actor. Other feelings occur during and after the performance. All these feelings are “scripted” by the subculture of the sport in question. These scripts, or “feeling rules,” guide athletes as they manage their emotions, prompting, for instance, appropriate behaviour during pregame renditions of national anthems or during postgame victory celebrations. Norms for the display of emotions vary widely among sports. Rugby players and boxers are permitted to express their feelings with ostentatious displays that are impermissible for golfers and sumo wrestlers. The importance of the contest is another variable influencing the emotions involved. Exhibition matches evoke less-intense feelings than football’s World Cup championship game.
The orchestration of emotions in sports begins with the arousal of expectations, provoking a diffuse emotional state that is then directed into a series of discrete and identifiable emotional displays. In other words, competitors become “psyched up.” In elite sports, players have already internalized the scripts that coaches call upon them to rehearse immediately before the contest and to adhere to during the contest. It is not, however, just the players who experience this scripting. Drawing upon fans’ previous experiences, media pundits and other “stage setters” also contribute to the management of the fans’ emotions. Cues provided by the stage setters prompt fans to express a variety of emotions throughout a game. These emotions range from passionate identification with one’s representative team and with one’s fellow fans to hatred for the opposing team and its misguided supporters. Fans feel despair when an idolized player is injured; they feel ecstasy when a last-minute goal transforms humiliating defeat into triumphant victory.
While there may be a scripting or an orchestration of the emotions, individuals vary in the degree to which they internalize and follow scripts. Despite such individual variations, rules do structure the emotional experience of sports subcultures. These emotional processes, which help define roles of players, coaches, and fans, also help forge the link between sports and national identity
Which of the following can be DEFINITELY inferred based on the passage?
Solution
Based on the passage, it can be inferred that emotional scripts or "feeling rules" exist in sports subcultures to direct athletes, coaches, and supporters in controlling their emotions. These narratives, which are affected by the rules and ideals of the specific sport, add to the emotional experiences of everyone participating in sports, including players and spectators. This shows that the emotional experiences associated with sports are shaped by socially created dominant discourses. Therefore, Option B is correct.
Option A, Option C, and Option D can't be inferred based on the passage. It has not been explicitly stated that every person internalizes and follows the same emotional scripts, or that sports should be watched and played without getting emotional about it. Additionally, while the passage mentions that sports can have both positive and negative effects on individuals, it does not explicitly state that parents and teachers might be unaware of the negatives of sports socialization.
Which of the following best expresses the author’s purpose in writing this passage?
Solution
The passage discusses the socialization of individuals into sports, including the values, norms, and emotional experiences associated with sports. It highlights how sports socialization can have both positive and negative effects, and how sports subcultures have emotional scripts that guide athletes, coaches, and fans in managing their emotions. The passage does not explicitly aim to conclude whether the negatives outweigh the positives in sports socialization, list rules in society for sports, or solely describe feelings experienced during sporting events. Therefore, option C) best expresses the author's purpose in writing this passage.
Which of these would be the MOST apt title for this article?
Solution
The passage discusses the sociological aspects of sports, including how society socializes individuals into sports, the effects of sports socialization, emotional experiences in sports, and the role of culture in shaping sports subcultures. The most apt title for this article would be "Sociology of sports" as it accurately reflects the main theme and focus of the passage. Therefore Option A is the correct answer
Sports in the lives of children: While the passage does touch upon the involvement of young athletes in sports and how sports socialization can affect them, the scope of the passage is not limited to just children ,so option B is wrong
Role of culture in sports: While the passage mentions the role of culture in shaping sports subcultures and the norms for the display of emotions in different sports, it does not extensively discuss cultural aspects beyond this , so we can eliminate option C
Sports and global trends: The passage does not specifically address global trends in sports. It primarily discusses the socialization process, emotional experiences, and effects of sports socialization, without explicitly referencing broader global trends or changes in the sports industry , so option D is wrong
Which of these is NOT true about what the author refers to as "feeling rules"?
Solution
Option B : The author specifically mentions that feeling rules are not just enacted or performed, but are also genuinely experienced by athletes. The passage states that "athletes often do internalize these feeling rules and experience genuine emotions as a result" (paragraph 4), indicating that athletes do genuinely experience the emotions associated with feeling rules while participating in sports.
All of the remaining options (A , C ,D) can be inferred from the passage
Therefore the correct answer is Option B
Which of the following does the author NOT suggest as an emotion that fans are orchestrated to experience?
Solution
The author does not suggest "fright" as an emotion that fans are orchestrated to experience. The passage does not mention or imply that fans are intentionally orchestrated to experience fear or fright as part of their emotional engagement with sports. The passage mainly focuses on the emotions of athletes and how they are socialized into feeling rules, while briefly mentioning the emotions of fans in the context of collective effervescence and emotional contagion. The emotions mentioned in the passage in relation to fans are despair, ecstasy, and hatred, but not fright.
