Sign in
Please select an account to continue using cracku.in
↓ →
Join Our JEE Preparation Group
Prep with like-minded aspirants; Get access to free daily tests and study material.
The mean and the variance of a binomial distribution are $$4$$ and $$2$$ respectively. Then the probability of $$2$$ successes is
For a binomial distribution with $$ n $$ trials, probability of success $$ p $$, and probability of failure $$ q $$, the formulas for mean and variance are:
$$ \text{Mean} = np $$
$$ \text{Variance} = npq $$
We are given:
$$ np = 4 $$
$$ npq = 2 $$
Step 1: Find the Probabilities $$ p $$ and $$ q $$
To find $$ q $$, we divide the variance by the mean:
$$ \frac{npq}{np} = \frac{2}{4} $$
$$ q = \frac{1}{2} $$
Since the sum of the probabilities of success and failure is always 1 ($$ p + q = 1 $$), we can find $$ p $$:
$$ p = 1 - q = 1 - \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{2} $$
Step 2: Find the Number of Trials $$ n $$
Substitute the value of $$ p $$ back into the mean equation:
$$ n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right) = 4 $$
$$ n = 8 $$
Step 3: Calculate the Probability of 2 Successes
The probability of getting exactly $$ k $$ successes in a binomial distribution is given by the formula:
$$ P(X = k) = \binom{n}{k} \cdot p^k \cdot q^{n-k} $$
We need to find the probability for $$ k = 2 $$ successes:
$$ P(X = 2) = \binom{8}{2} \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^2 \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{8-2} $$
$$ P(X = 2) = \binom{8}{2} \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^2 \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^6 $$
$$ P(X = 2) = \binom{8}{2} \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^8 $$
Now evaluate the combination and power terms:
$$ \binom{8}{2} = \frac{8 \times 7}{2 \times 1} = 28 $$
$$ \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^8 = \frac{1}{256} $$
Substitute these values back into the equation:
$$ P(X = 2) = 28 \cdot \frac{1}{256} $$
$$ P(X = 2) = \frac{28}{256} $$
Therefore, the probability of 2 successes is $$ \frac{28}{256} $$.
Click on the Email ☝️ to Watch the Video Solution
Create a FREE account and get:
Educational materials for JEE preparation