In which country did chess originate?
Sign in
Please select an account to continue using cracku.in
↓ →
In which country did chess originate?
Manu Bhaker won gold in the 2018 Youth Olympic Games in _________ sports.
Which of the following is an 'inactivated vaccine' or a vaccine developed using a deadvirus?
The Sero-survey, that is proposed to be conducted by ICMR for monitoring trends inthe prevalence of the novel corona virus, will involve the testing of which sample?
In which place in Nagaland was a decisive battle of World War II fought?
Find the odd one out
Which wrestler was awarded the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2020?
Which of the followng options is true in relation to an epidemic?
An epidemic ________________.
Which of the following musical instruments is Anuradha Pal associated with?
Which of the following is NOT a session of the Lok Sabha?
Black revolution in Indian context is related to ___________.
What kind of product was manufactured by the Union Carbide plant in Bhopal, whichhad one of the worst Industrial disasters in independent India?
India's decision to send Covid-19 vaccine to neighbouring countries is being doneunder the _______.
Which was the first book to set the stage for society to change in becoming moreenvironmentally aware?
Greenhouse gases prevent release of heat in the __________
Which Indian Lunar probe discovered water on the Moon?
The year 2021 marks the ___________ death anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.
The UDAY Scheme implemented by the Government of India since 2015 seeks to______________________________.
Which is the state with the highest percentage of the Scheduled Tribes population inIndia?
The Nobel Peace Prize 2020 was awarded to ______________.
Find the ODD one out?
Who among the following is said to have drafted the U.S. Declaration of Independence with four others?
Which of the following is NOT part of the Sustainable Development Goals?
Who was the first Indian woman to be elected as President of United Nations GeneralAssembly?
Which among the given options is the Indian social reformer also known as the Fatherof Modern India?
The second largest ocean in the world is _____________.
Which is the first state/UT to become the first Har Ghar Jal state in India?
Who is the current Secretary-General of the United Nations?
Who was the Commander of the Air India Plane that flew over North Pole in January2021 with an all-women cockpit crew?
Which was the Indian entry for Oscars in 2020?
Drishyam, the Hindi movie released in 2015, was originally made in which Indianlanguage?
This writer was the first to win the Sahitya Academy Award for English literature. Whowas he?
The book A Promised Land (2020) has been authored by _______.
Which among the following Indian freedom movements started with the breaking ofthe Salt Law?
What is the name of the Central Government’s economic package for the poor to fightCoronavirus pandemic and lock-down?
Which of the following hill ranges is dominated by the ‘Doddabetta’ peak?
Identify the current Lok Sabha Speaker among the given options.
The main theme of Economic Survey 2020-2021 is ___________.
Bhitarkanika National Park is situated in which Indian state?
Name the country that generates all its electricity using renewable energy.
If 2 is a root of the equation $$2x^2 + kx + 4 = 0$$, which of the following values of k givesanother positive integer root?
Since it is given that 2 is one of the roots of the equation,
Putting x=2 in the above equation
2(4) + 2k + 4=0
k= -6
Thus, the above equation will be in the form $$2x^2 - 6x + 4 = 0$$
Thus, the correct option is C.
The percentage increase in the area of a rectangle when each side is increased by aquarter of its length is _________________.
Increase in length of each side = 25%
Apply successive percentage formula
we get increase in area = 25 + 25 + (25*25)/100 = 50+6.25 = 56.25
The number of ways in which Aman, Anaya, Danish and Nero can stand in a straightline such that, Danish comes between Aman and Anaya and Nero does not comebetween Aman and Anaya is _________________.
The possible outcomes will be
Aman, Danish, Anaya, Nero
Anaya, Danish, Aman, Nero
Nero, Aman, Danish, Anaya
Nero, Anaya, Danish, Aman
A rhombus and a kite both DO NOT have _________________.
We have to find a property that is either present in a rhombus but not in a kite or is present in a kite but not in a Rhombus.
A rhombus has equal opposite sides, while a kite generally does not have equal opposite sides. In a kite, the two pairs of adjacent sides are equal, but the opposite sides are not necessarily equal.
Both a rhombus and a kite have equal adjacent sides (in a rhombus, all sides are equal, and in a kite, two pairs of adjacent sides are equal).
Both shapes have two acute and two obtuse angles (though they may be different in size, they still have both types of angles).
Bisecting angles: Both a rhombus and a kite have bisecting angles, meaning that the diagonals bisect the angles of the shape.
Abhay can complete a piece of work in 18 days, Balram in 20 days and Chandan in 30days. Balram and Chandan started the work but were forced to leave after 2 days. How many days will Abhay take to complete the remaining work alone?
LCM(18, 20, 30)= 180
Let total work be 180 units
Abhay can complete the work in 18 days which means in one day he does 10 units of work.
Balram can complete the work in 20 days which means in one day he does 9 units of work.
Chandan can complete the work in 30 days which means in one day he does 6 units of work.
Let the remaining work done by A be x days
Therefore, 180 = 2(9+6) + 10x
10x = 150
x= 15 days
Two guns were fired from the same place at an interval of 6 minutes. A person approaching the place observed that 5 min 52 seconds have elapsed between the hearings of the sound of two guns. If the velocity of the sound is 330 meter/ second,the man was approaching that place at what speed in kilometer per hour?
Two shots were fired at an interval of 6 minutes, but the man heard both shots at an interval of 5 minutes 52 seconds which means that between the hearing of the first shot and the second shot, he covered a distance equal to 330*8 m.
Time taken by man to cover the distance = 352 seconds
Speed of man = (330*8)/352 = 7.5 m/s
Speed in Km/hr = 7.5 * (18/5) = 27 Km/hr
A positive integer when divided by q leaves remainder 21. When double that number is divided by q, the remainder is 13. Then, q is _________.
Let the positive no. be N
N = kq + 21
N' = 2N = 2kq + 42
Now N' leaves a remainder of 13 when divided by q
So, N' = pq + 13
Therefore Remainder when 42 is divided by q should be 13 which is only possible when q=29.
The least number of complete years in which a sum of money will be more than doubled at 10% compound interest is ________.
Since the number is more than double, the total amount will be at least twice the number.
If the number is x, the amount will be more than 2x.
Thus, $$2x\le\ x\left(1+\frac{1}{10}\right)^{^r}$$
$$\left(1+\frac{1}{10}\right)^{^{r\ }}\ge\ 2$$
For r = 8, the value of $$\left(1.1\right)^r=2.143$$
Thus, the value of r will be 8.
Thus, the correct option is B.
Alternative:
No. of years in which a sum of money invested at r% compounded annually amounts to double is 72/r years
So, no. of years in which the amount will be doubled = 72/10 = 7.2 years
So, the least no. of years for which the amount will be more than doubled will be 8 years.
The product of two numbers is 45 and their difference is 4. What is the sum of squares of these two numbers?
Let the numbers be x and y
It is given,
xy = 45
x - y = 4
squaring on both sides, we get
$$x^2+y^2-2xy\ =\ 16$$
$$x^2+y^2$$ = 16 + 2(45) = 106
Answer is option A.
The ratio of simple interest calculated biennially and quarterly at the same rate of interest for the same time period is _____ [TISSNET 2021].
[The ratio of simple interest calculated per year on a biennial interest rate $$R\%$$ and calculated quarterly at the rate of interest $$R\%$$ per annum, both for 2 years is _____.]
Simple Interest biennially = (1/2)*(P*r*2T)/100 = PrT/100
Simple Interest quarterly = (8)*(P*r*T/4)/100 = 2PrT/100
So, Ratio = 1:2
The missing number in the following table is ______________.

$$ 4^3, 6^3, 8^3$$
$$10^3,12^3,14^3$$
$$16^3,x^3,20^3$$
x should be 18
? = $$18^3$$ = 5832
Answer is option A.
The compound interest on Rs. 30000 at 7 percent per annum is Rs. 4347. What is thetime period in years for this investment?
$$P\left(1+\frac{r}{100}\right)^n-P\ =4347$$
$$\left(1+\frac{r}{100}\right)^n-1\ =\frac{4347}{30000}$$
$$\left(1+\frac{7}{100}\right)^n=\frac{11449}{10000}$$
n = 2
Answer is option A.
Two sets AA and BB are defined as follows:-
$$AA = \left\{x \mid x \in N, x < 5\right\}$$
$$BB=\left\{x \mid x \in N, x^2<25\right\}$$, n(XX) = number of elements in XX. Choose the CORRECT option.
AA= {1, 2, 3, 4}; n(AA)= 4
BB= {1, 2, 3, 4}; n(BB)=4
So, AA=BB
The leap day falls on the same day of the week after a gap of at least ______________.
364 days makes 52 weeks so we will take the remainder days in a year and add them.
For a period of 4 years the no. of days which we get = 2+1+1+1 =5
We have taken a period 4 years as a leap year occurs in every 4 years
Now, we have to make 5 days a multiple of 7 for which we have to multiply it with 7.
So, total years will be 4*7 = 28 years
Two fair dices with faces numbered 1 to 6 are thrown and their points are added. The thrower is given Rs. 40 for a score of 12 and he has to pay Rs. 2 if the score is less than 12. What is his expectation about gain or loss per throw?
Probability of getting 12(6,6) = $$\frac{1}{6}\cdot\frac{1}{6}=\frac{1}{36}$$
Gain or loss per throw = 40($$\frac{1}{36}$$) + (-2)($$\frac{35}{36}$$) = $$\frac{40}{36}-\frac{70}{36}=-\frac{30}{36}=-\frac{5}{6}$$
Loss of Rs $$\frac{5}{6}$$ for one throw.
Answer is option D.
For every 60 units that a minute hand moves in an hour, the hour hand moves by________.
In an hour, minute hand covers 60 units.
Units covered by hour hand = $$\ \frac{60}{12}$$ = 5 units.
Answer is option C.
Ranbir’s office has two doors facing each other. The front door faces east. He comesout of his office back door and walks 100 metres, turns right and walks 50 metresfurther. The direction he is now from his office is ______________.
The front door is facing east which means that the back door should be facing west.
Ranbir comes out of his from the back door which means he travels in the west direction for 100m and then turns right which means he is now travelling north. So finally Ranbir is in northwest direction from his office.
Among the following options, the CORRECT one is
1. Rhombus is a cyclic quadrilateral
2. Diagonals of a rhombus are equal
3. A rhombus that can be inscribed in a circle is a square
4. Opposite angles in a rhombus are equal
Rhombus is not a cyclic quadrilateral as the sum of opposite angles is not always 180 degrees.
Diagonals of a rhombus are not equal except in the case of a square.
A rhombus which is inscribed in a circle is always a square as it will be a cyclic quadrilateral for which the sum of opposite angles must be 180 degrees which is possible only when it is a square.
The opposite angles of a rhombus are equal.
Which of the given statements is an INCORRECT representation of the expression $$1\frac{3}{4} \div \frac{1}{2}$$ is ________.
$$1\frac{3}{4} \div \frac{1}{2}$$ can be written as $$\ \frac{\ \frac{7}{4}}{\frac{1}{2}}=\frac{7}{2}$$
option C - Half of $$1\frac{3}{4}=\frac{7}{4}$$ will be written as $$\ \frac{\ \frac{7}{4}}{2}=\frac{7}{8}$$
Therefore, the answer is option C.
A person goes from X to Y on a cycle at 20 kilometers per hour and returns at 24kilometers per hour. The method of Central Tendency most appropriate to calculate theaverage speed would be____________.
If the distance travelled is the same during all the speeds then the average speed for the whole journey is the harmonic mean of the speed.
The Coefficient of Variation can be measured by _____________
The standard formula for calculating the coefficient of variation = Coefficient of Variation (CV) = (Standard Deviation/Mean) × 100.
Complete the following series of numbers: 6, 26, 126, 626, .......
6 x 5 - 4 = 26
26 x 5 - 4 = 126
126 x 5 - 4 = 626
626 x 5 - 4 = 3126
Answer is option A.
The seventh term in the series 5, 13, 29, 61, ….... is ________________.
5 x 2 + 3 = 13
13 x 2 + 3 = 29
29 x 2 + 3 = 61
61 x 2 + 3 = 125
125 x 2 + 3 = 253
253 x 2 + 3 = 509
Answer is option D.
An article manufactured by a company consists of two parts: Part I and Part II. In the process of manufacturing of Part I, 9 products out of 100 are likely to be defective. Similarly, 5 products out of 100 are likely to be defective in the manufacture of Part II. What is the probability that the final assembled article will NOT be defective?
Probability to be defective for part I = $$\dfrac{9}{100}$$
Probability to be defective for part II = $$\dfrac{5}{100}$$
Final assembled problem will not be defective if both Part I and Part II are not defective.
Probability = $$\dfrac{91}{100}\times\ \dfrac{95}{100}$$ = 0.8645
Answer is option B.
If $$\log \left(\frac{a}{b}\right) + \log \left(\frac{b}{a}\right) = \log(a + b)$$, then which of the following statements is CORRECT?
log(a/b) + log(b/a) = log(a+b)
log(a+b) = log(a/b)(b/a)
log(a+b)=log 1
a+b=1
The surface area of the resultant cuboid that gets formed by placing five ice cubes adjacent to each other, each of whose side is 5 centimetres, is _____________.

The dimensions of given cuboid is 25 cm, 5 cm and 5 cm
Surface area = 2(lb+bh+lh) = 2(125 + 125 + 25) = 550 $$cm^2$$
Answer is option B.
The following table presents Purpose-wise Total Balances (Overdues) of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) of some select States of India. Answer the following four questions based on this table.
Which of the given statements is INCORRECT?
Total overdue of Gujarat = 342,854.56
Total overdue of Karnataka = 83,250.42
Total overdue of Kerela = 1,684,232.31
Total overdue of Madhya Pradesh = 173,161.9
Total overdue of Telangana = 42,925.65
We can see that Gujarat's total overdue is the second highest so its average overdue will also be the second-highest among the five states.
Similarly, we can see that options B and C are also correct.
The average overdue of Karnataka will be more than the average overdue of Telangana so option D is incorrect.
The state of ______has 0.01% of highest Non-Agricultural overdue as a percentage of total overdue.
Total overdue of Gujarat = 342,854.56
Total overdue of Karnataka = 83,250.42
Total overdue of Kerela = 1,684,232.31
Total overdue of Madhya Pradesh = 173,161.9
Total overdue of Telangana = 42,925.65
% overdue of non-agricultural overdue for Telangana = (1943.87/1,356,970.63)*100 = 0.01%
In which state, is the ratio of agricultural to non-agricultural overdues the highest,among the selected states?
Ratio of agricultural overdue to non-agricultural overdue for Gujarat = 324455.78/4978.96 = 65.17
Similarly, we can calculate this ratio for others and then we can see that this ratio is highest for Gujarat.
In the table above, which state shows the highest variabillity of overdues?
From the table above we can see that the highest variability in revenue is shown by Kerala.
Spot the Error.
"If I were in your shoes, I would put on a happy face," advised Rakesh. No Error.
There is no error in the given statement.
Answer is option A.
Identify the correct order of the following statements to make a coherent paragraph.The lead sentence has been given.
With its rich pungency and smell, garlic has been both extolled and vilified during its4000 year history.
A. Later the Greeks and Romans used it for dog bites and bladder infections as well ascures for asthma and leprosy.
B. The ancient Egyptians used it as medicine for more than twenty different ailmentsincluding heart disease and tumors.
C. The Israeli slaves when fleeing the Egyptians for the Promised Land complained ofnot having garlic.
D. Although it is sometimes referred to as “the stinking rose” and certainly its smell isoff-putting to many, it still thrives today with even a garlic ice cream available in SanFrancisco.
E. They even fed it to their slaves to give them more strength to build the pyramids.
B-E-C forms a logical sequence as the word "they" in E refers to the "Egyptians" mentioned in B. Statement C builds up on E by talking about the "Egyptian slaves".
Among the options, only A has the sequence B-E-C.
Hence, the answer is option A.
Fill in the blank to complete the sentence:
Despite being twins, the boys looked so different ____ one another.
The word "different" is used to compare the appearance of two people. Thus, "from" is the most suitable choice to use with it.
Hence, the answer is option D.
Which word from the given options is most opposite in meaning to the word in capitals?
IMPEDE
The word "impede" means to "obstruct".
Option A: "fetter" refers to a chain or shackle used to restrain someone.
Option C: slide would mean to let things pass, which although close, does not work as an antonym as well as option D.
Option D: "facilitate" means to make a process smoother and easier, which would work as an antonym of "obstruct.
Hence, the answer is option D.
Fill in the blanks to complete the sentence:
He was quick ___ arithmetic, but weak ___ languages.
The preposition that will fit with "quick" is "at", and the one preceding "languages" will be "in".
Thus, the correct answer is B.
Spot the Error
Let us not live here furthermore as it is dangerous to do so, she said. No Error.
"furthermore" means "in addition", which does not fit the sentence. The sentence should have had "anymore".
Hence, the answer is option A.
Spot the Error.
Every adult and child knows that success is as much about belief and hard work as about skill. No Error
As the sentence is grammatically correct, it would not contain any errors.
Thus, the correct option is A.
Fill in the blanks to complete the sentence:
The ________ of modern technology do not compensate for the _______ of privacy invasion it harbours.
Since the connotation is positive and negative in the first and second parts respectively, the aptest words to fill the blanks will be "wonders" and "fact".
The correct option is B.
Fill in the blanks to complete the sentence:
There is ___________ on earth I would ____________ here.
The most appropriate words to complete the sentence will be "nowhere" and "rather be than".
Thus, the correct answer is B.
Identify the correct order of the following statements to make a coherent paragraph.The lead sentence has been given.
The expression “you are what you eat” is becoming clearer with every nutritional study.
A. In brief, most longevity studies indicate that a diet rich in Omega 3s and avoiding sugars and most carbohydrates will add years to our lives, and especially the quality of our lives.
B. However, the problem for most of us in eating a healthy diet is that food is culturaland we tend to eat foods that our culture has instilled in us as good, whether or not they are consistent with these studies.
C. Physically, athletes are learning to avoid carbohydrates if they require bursts ofspeed in their sports.
D. Even mentally, what we eat can affect performance as many foods such as sugars slow us down and tend to make us lethargic, something we must avoid especially while taking exams.
E. Nutritionists suggest deficiencies in B-12, thiamine, zinc and niacin will result in lower mental performance.
Option B contradicts the given statement by presenting a contrary side of the expression. Then options C and D are the extension of option B.
Option D describes the mental aspect of food, and option E is an extension of option D.
As option A is giving a conclusion, the correct sequence of the statements will be BCDEA.
Thus, the correct answer is A.
Fill in the blank to complete the sentence:
This pandemic has taught us to be more _________ with hygiene
Option D is the correct answer.
Circumspect means cautious, careful, and aware of potential risks, which fits well in the context of hygiene during a pandemic
Option A: Chary also means cautious but is typically used in the sense of being hesitant or reluctant rather than careful with hygiene.
Option B: Tepid means lukewarm or unenthusiastic, which does not fit the sentence.
Option C: Suspicious means distrustful, which does not relate directly to hygiene practices.
Identify which of the given options CANNOT be definitely inferred from the passagegiven below.
The group was wary of the taking the course. The expectations set by the professorwere so high, that they seemed near impossible to achieve. There were many readingsgiven and the assignments seems to focus on anything but the readings. It was almostas if the readings were a take off point only. The group was worried that theircumulative grade point would suffer as a result of taking this course.
The passage discusses students' perceptions of the course, highlighting high expectations, many readings, and difficult assignments. However, it does not indicate that the professor was strict. The difficulty of the course could come from its structure rather than the professor's strictness. Although the extreme expectations of the professor are mentioned in the paragraph, the professors cannot be inferred.
Thus, C is not a valid inference from the passage.
The correct answer is C.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option:
To meet the goals of Atmanirbhar Bharat the universities have started ________studyprogrammes.
'entrepreneurship' is spelt correctly.
Answer is option C.
Fill in the blanks to complete the sentence:
The number of people who _____ interested in the play _____ outnumbered by thosewho already bought the tickets to watch it.
The first blank relates to the word "people", a plural entity. Thus, the auxiliary verb used will be "are".
The second blank relates to the "number of people", which is a singular entity. Thus, the auxiliary verb used will be "is".
Hence, the answer is option B.
Fill in the blanks to complete the sentence:
It is difficult to feel _________ when one is at _________.
The most suitable words to fill the blanks in the given sentence will be "remorseful" and "the top of the world".
Remorseful means feeling deep regret or guilt. At the top of the world means being extremely happy or successful. This would suggest that it's difficult to feel guilty or regretful when one is feeling extremely happy or successful, which makes the most logical sense.
Thus, the correct option is A.
Select the synonym for the word underlined in the statement given below:
He was always looking to save money. After all, one needed to be frugal if one wanted to build a successful business.
frugal - careful in the use of one's money or resources. Thrifty also has the similar meaning.
Answer is option A.
Which word from the given options is most similar in meaning to the word in capitals when used as a verb?
MEAN
mean - intend to convey or refer, signify
Answer is option C.
Spot the Error.
Films are an amazing medium of communicating cultures and history. No Error.
Since "communicating cultures" is indicating the purpose of films, "for" should be used instead of "of".
Hence, the answer is option B.
Select the antonym for the word underlined in the statement given below:
They did not know which direction to go in. They were at an impasse about the release date of the film.
impasse - deadlock, a situation in which no progress is possible
Antonym of impasse is 'breakthrough'.
Answer is option B.
Based on the information that follows, which of the given options is MOSTDEFINITELY TRUE?
There are two containers in a room.
1. One is a box and one is a can.
2. One is small and is green.
3. One of them has toys in it.
4. The can is big.
5. The container that is completely purple has toys in it.
It is mentioned that there are two containers in a room. One is a box and one is a can.
Can is big. Box is small and green. This implies can is purple and have toys in it.
We do not know what is there in green box.
Therefore, answer is option D.
The target group of major OTT platforms should ideally be “millennials” or the age group of18-35 years. This number, however, is largely due to the Digital India campaign, increasingthe number of smartphone and data users and is also an effect of globalization which has ledthe population to be more aware. With major data service providers like Jio bringing downdata costs, there has been a significant shift in viewership in India with number of Indian usersgrowing at the rate of 4-8%. This essentially means that there is massive potential for ruralIndia to subscribe to such platforms on a large scale - making rural India also a target groupfor platforms.
In 2017, OTT platforms in India generated INR 2019 crore, this is expected to increase to INR5595 crores by 2022. Digital streaming platforms overtook film entertainment to rank the third-largest Indian Media & Entertainment sector in 2019, according to the latest EY-FICCI IndianMedia & Entertainment Report.
When most OTT platforms made an entry in the Indian market, they mainly had catch-upshows. However, with the entry of global players like Netflix and Amazon Prime Video, usersare offered a plethora of original content. Hotstar is currently the most popular OTT platform inIndia according to data from a mobile advertising and Internet service provider. Although inmy opinion, Netflix will be the market leader in the medium term among millennials as it is agiant global player and it entered India powerful, mainly due to the youth inspired by westernculture.
Which of the given options best represent the author’s purpose in writing thepassage?
The primary purpose of the passage is to describe the advent of OTT platforms, their market share, and their massive potential to capture the rural Indian crowd.
Options B and D can be easily eliminated. Option C is a close option, but since the passage mainly revolved around the advent and potential of OTT platforms, option A is the correct option.
Which of the given options is an assumption made by the author?
"However, with the entry of global players like Netflix and Amazon Prime Video, users are offered a plethora of original content. Hotstar is currently the most popular OTT platform in India according to data from a mobile advertising and Internet service provider..."
It is can be understood from the last paragraph that if original content does not attract users, OTT platforms' initiative of providing original content would be baseless.
Thus, option A is a valid assumption.
So, the correct answer is option A.
Which of the following can be inferred based on the passage?
Option A: Although rural India is a massive potential market for OTT platforms, it cannot be inferred that there is no presence of OTT there. Thus, this is not the correct option.
Option B: In paragraph 2, OTT and digital streaming are used synonymously. Thus, it can be inferred that they refer to the same type of platform. Thus, this is the correct option.
Option C: OTT platforms are expected to increase their revenue to double their current one. But it cannot be certainly said that they will do the same. Thus, this is not the correct option.
Option D: This is a very extreme statement which cannot be inferred from the passage.
Thus, the correct option is B.
The author will NOT agree with which of the given options?
Option A: “The target group of major OTT platforms should ideally be “millennials” or the age group of18-35 years.”
It can be inferred from the above excerpt that people born between 1985 and 2002 are easily attracted to Netflix and hence are the main target group. Thus it is not the answer.
Option B: “Digital streaming platforms overtook film entertainment to rank the third-largest Indian Media & Entertainment sector in 2019.”
From the above excerpt, it can be inferred that OTT platforms surpassed movies two years ago. Thus, this is not the correct answer.
Option C: “Netflix will be the market leader in the medium term among millennials as it is a giant global player and it entered India powerful, mainly due to the youth inspired by western culture.”
Although the contribution of western influence on youth is uncontested, establishing the influence as the sole reason for Netflix’s popularity will be extreme. Thus, this is the correct option.
Thus, the correct option is C.
The passage has most likely appeared in ______________.
As the tone of the passage is informative, and the author referred to himself in some parts in the first person, this excerpt is likely taken from an editorial of a newspaper.
Since only option D comes close to the above inference, the correct option is D.
Historians have long argued about what gave rise to the Age of Enlightenment in theeighteenth century. Some have hypothesized that it was at least in some part due to the riseof coffee houses. That seems a bit farfetched until we look at it more closely.
Very quickly after the rise of coffee houses, there emerged a distinction between them and thepubs. Rumors of the health benefits of coffee spread and it was soon agreed that coffeehouses spurred more sober, rational thought and sharper political discussion, whereastaverns catered to rowdiness and intoxication. A coffee house was a place to be exposed tonew ideas, current events and discussions of how life might be lived. Until this time, a forumto discuss new ideas had not existed. Now, merchants, traders, writers, philosophers, andpoliticians had such a forum. Gradually they found other ways of meeting and coffee housesbegan to wane in popularity until the Starbucks generation brought them back twenty-fiveyears ago.
Some historians claim that coffee replaced “beer soup,” which was what most Europeans andAmericans had subsisted on, with a “drug” that now kept them awake and allowed them toconverse well into the night in a far more lucid way. This, they feel, was what gave rise to boththe French and American revolutions. Other historians say that a higher level of leisure hadcreated an environment in which people could afford the time to meet in coffee houses todiscuss the latest farming techniques, business trends and, of course, politics.
King Charles of England actually attempted a ban of coffee houses in 1675, fearing that theymight result in his loss of power or even decapitation. However, his ministers loved theircoffee so much that they overruled the ban.
So, did coffee houses give rise to these meetings or was it the level of leisure that hadsuddenly come about? It does seem logical that people with a clear head would be morecapable of holding onto an idea for a longer period of time, and would have the mental acuityto grasp what each other was saying. So, perhaps it was a happy confluence of increasedleisure and a switch to coffee that enabled so many of those wonderful thinkers to hammerout their ideas for a new nation and those with a scientific bent to come up with so many ofthe major breakthroughs during the eighteenth century in Europe and America.
Some of our founding fathers may have sat in these very coffee houses discussing the futureof the colonies or how government should be, noting the pitfalls or failures of the monarchiesof England and France. Perhaps a seemingly harmless thing like the emergence of coffeehouses actually influenced our future. Interestingly, almost as quickly as they sprang up,coffee houses began to decline. They had served their purpose and were no longer neededas meeting places for political or literary critics and debate.
If coffee was NOT the largest influence on the Age of Enlightenment, what does the author suggest might have been the influence?
'...So, perhaps it was a happy confluence of increased leisure and a switch to coffee that enabled so many of those wonderful thinkers to hammer out their ideas for a new nation...'
It is clear from the underlined portion that the author considered increased leisure and a switch to coffee as the two most important reasons for enlightenment.
Option E can also be a distant reason, but since option C is more important from the author's perspective,
The correct option will be C.
Which of the following most closely suggests the author’s attitude about the influenceof coffee houses on the Age of Enlightenment?
Option A: Although the author was open to the argument of coffee's role, coffee being a definite factor is far-fetched.
Which of the following does the author NOT do concerning coffee?
Option A: The relation between mental acuity and coffee can be understood from the penultimate paragraph of the passage.
Option B: This can be inferred from the third paragraph of the passage.
Option C: This is also mentioned in the third paragraph of the passage.
Option D: The health part of coffee is not discussed anywhere in the passage.
Thus, the correct answer is D.
Why does the author mention the proclamation of King Charles?
"King Charles of England actually attempted a ban of coffee houses in 1675, fearing that they might result in his loss of power or even decapitation. However, his ministers loved their coffee so much that they overruled the ban."
It can be inferred from the above lines that The King perceived coffee as a threat and took extreme steps to prohibit its use.
This is aptly described in option D.
Thus, the correct answer is D.
Which of the following best expresses the author’s purpose in writing this passage?
The whole passage revolved around the advent of coffee houses and their potential role in the Age of Enlightenment.
Only option D captured the essence of the passage.
Thus, the correct answer is D.
Educational materials for CAT preparation