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We are given the Boolean expression $$\sim(p \vee q) \vee (\sim p \wedge q)$$ and we must find an equivalent, simpler form.
First recall De Morgan’s law, which states that $$\sim (A \vee B)=\sim A \wedge \sim B.$$
Applying this law to the first part, we have:
$$\sim(p \vee q)=\sim p \wedge \sim q.$$
Substituting this result into the original expression, we get
$$\bigl(\sim p \wedge \sim q\bigr)\;\; \vee \;\;(\sim p \wedge q).$$
Now observe that $$\sim p$$ is common in both terms of the disjunction. Using the distributive law $$A\wedge B \;\; \vee \;\; A\wedge C = A\wedge (B\vee C),$$ we factor out $$\sim p$$:
$$\bigl(\sim p \wedge \sim q\bigr)\;\; \vee \;\;(\sim p \wedge q) = \sim p \wedge \bigl(\,\sim q \vee q\bigr).$$
Inside the parentheses we have $$\sim q \vee q,$$ which is always true (a tautology). Denote the Boolean constant “true” by $$T$$. Hence
$$\sim q \vee q = T.$$
Substituting this back, we obtain
$$\sim p \wedge T.$$
In Boolean algebra, any proposition ANDed with $$T$$ remains unchanged, so
$$\sim p \wedge T = \sim p.$$
Thus, the original expression simplifies completely to $$\sim p.$$
Looking at the given options, $$\sim p$$ corresponds to Option B.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
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