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The integral $$\int x \cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1-x^2}{1+x^2}\right) dx$$ ($$x > 0$$) is equal to:
We need to evaluate the integral $$\int x \cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1-x^2}{1+x^2}\right) dx$$ for $$x > 0$$.
First, recognize that the expression inside the inverse cosine resembles a trigonometric identity. Set $$x = \tan \theta$$, so $$\theta = \tan^{-1} x$$. Since $$x > 0$$, $$\theta$$ lies in $$(0, \pi/2)$$. Then:
$$\frac{1 - x^2}{1 + x^2} = \frac{1 - \tan^2 \theta}{1 + \tan^2 \theta} = \cos 2\theta$$
because $$1 + \tan^2 \theta = \sec^2 \theta$$ and $$\cos 2\theta = \frac{1 - \tan^2 \theta}{\sec^2 \theta} = \frac{1 - \tan^2 \theta}{1 + \tan^2 \theta}$$. Therefore:
$$\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1 - x^2}{1 + x^2}\right) = \cos^{-1}(\cos 2\theta)$$
Since $$2\theta \in (0, \pi)$$, and $$\cos^{-1}(\cos \alpha) = \alpha$$ for $$\alpha \in [0, \pi]$$, we have:
$$\cos^{-1}(\cos 2\theta) = 2\theta = 2 \tan^{-1} x$$
Substituting back into the integral:
$$\int x \cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1-x^2}{1+x^2}\right) dx = \int x \cdot 2 \tan^{-1} x dx = 2 \int x \tan^{-1} x dx$$
Now, integrate $$\int x \tan^{-1} x dx$$ using integration by parts. Set $$u = \tan^{-1} x$$ and $$dv = x dx$$. Then:
$$du = \frac{1}{1 + x^2} dx, \quad v = \int x dx = \frac{x^2}{2}$$
Integration by parts formula is $$\int u dv = u v - \int v du$$, so:
$$\int x \tan^{-1} x dx = \left(\tan^{-1} x\right) \cdot \frac{x^2}{2} - \int \frac{x^2}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{1 + x^2} dx = \frac{x^2}{2} \tan^{-1} x - \frac{1}{2} \int \frac{x^2}{1 + x^2} dx$$
Simplify the integrand $$\frac{x^2}{1 + x^2}$$:
$$\frac{x^2}{1 + x^2} = \frac{(1 + x^2) - 1}{1 + x^2} = 1 - \frac{1}{1 + x^2}$$
Thus:
$$\int \frac{x^2}{1 + x^2} dx = \int \left(1 - \frac{1}{1 + x^2}\right) dx = \int 1 dx - \int \frac{1}{1 + x^2} dx = x - \tan^{-1} x$$
Substitute back:
$$\int x \tan^{-1} x dx = \frac{x^2}{2} \tan^{-1} x - \frac{1}{2} \left(x - \tan^{-1} x\right) = \frac{x^2}{2} \tan^{-1} x - \frac{x}{2} + \frac{1}{2} \tan^{-1} x$$
Combine the $$\tan^{-1} x$$ terms:
$$= \left(\frac{x^2}{2} + \frac{1}{2}\right) \tan^{-1} x - \frac{x}{2} = \frac{1}{2} (x^2 + 1) \tan^{-1} x - \frac{x}{2}$$
Now, recall the original integral had a factor of 2:
$$2 \int x \tan^{-1} x dx = 2 \left[\frac{1}{2} (x^2 + 1) \tan^{-1} x - \frac{x}{2}\right] = (x^2 + 1) \tan^{-1} x - x$$
Adding the constant of integration:
$$(x^2 + 1) \tan^{-1} x - x + c = -x + (1 + x^2) \tan^{-1} x + c$$
Comparing with the options:
The result matches option A. Note that $$\cot^{-1} x$$ is not equivalent to $$\tan^{-1} x$$, so options B and C are different.
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
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