Sign in
Please select an account to continue using cracku.in
↓ →
Join Our JEE Preparation Group
Prep with like-minded aspirants; Get access to free daily tests and study material.
Let $$Ix = \int \dfrac{x^x \sec^2 + \tan x}{(x \tan x + 1)^2} dx$$. If $$I(0) = 0$$, then $$I\left(\dfrac{\pi}{4}\right)$$ is equal to
Divide the fraction into two parts by adding and subtracting x.
$$\frac{\left(\left(x^x+x-x\right)\sec^2x\ +\ \tan\ x\right)}{\left(x\tan x+1\right)^2}$$
Now, Divide this into two parts like this.
$$\frac{\left(x\sec^2x+\tan x\right)}{\left(x\tan x+1\right)^2}+\frac{\left(x^x-x\right)\sec^2x}{\left(x\tan x+1\right)^2}$$
Now Solve 1st term by letting $$\left(x\tan x+1\right)=u$$ as it is and for the 2nd term use $$\left(\log\left(x\tan x+1\right)\right)=F\left(x\right)$$ as we can see this in the options that log term is there so use this approach and double derivate this and put the boundary conditions as given in the question.
So,
Let $$\left(\log\left(x\tan x+1\right)\right)=F\left(x\right)$$ for the second part means,
$$I\left(x\right)=\log\left(x\tan x+1\right)\ -\ \frac{1}{x\tan x+1}+\ F\left(x\right)$$
Putting the I(0) = 0 in the above equation we will get F(x) = 0.
$$I\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)=\ \log\left(\frac{\left(\pi\ +4\right)^2}{32}\right)-\ \frac{\pi^2}{4\left(\pi\ +4\right)}$$
Your question will be solved.
Create a FREE account and get:
Predict your JEE Main percentile, rank & performance in seconds
Educational materials for JEE preparation
Ask our AI anything
AI can make mistakes. Please verify important information.
AI can make mistakes. Please verify important information.