Sign in
Please select an account to continue using cracku.in
↓ →
Join Our JEE Preparation Group
Prep with like-minded aspirants; Get access to free daily tests and study material.
An insulating thin rod of length $$l$$ has a linear charge density $$\rho(x) = \rho_0 \frac{x}{l}$$ on it. The rod is rotated about an axis passing through the origin ($$x = 0$$) and perpendicular to the rod. If the rod makes $$n$$ rotations per second, then the time averaged magnetic moment of the rod is:
We place the thin insulating rod along the +x-axis with its left end at the origin, so the rod occupies $$0 \le x \le l$$. The rotation axis passes through the origin and is perpendicular to the rod; hence every small charge element at position $$x$$ moves in a circle of radius $$x$$.
The given linear charge density is
$$\rho(x)=\rho_0\frac{x}{l}\;,$$
so an element of length $$dx$$ contains charge
$$dq = \rho(x)\,dx = \rho_0\frac{x}{l}\,dx.$$
If the rod completes $$n$$ revolutions per second, its angular speed is
$$\omega = 2\pi n,$$
and one full revolution takes the period
$$T = \frac{1}{n}\;\text{s}.$$
For any charge that goes around once every $$T$$ seconds, the current associated with that charge is (definition of steady current)
$$I = \frac{q}{T} = q\,n.$$
Therefore the infinitesimal current produced by the element $$dq$$ is
$$dI = n\,dq = n\,\rho_0\frac{x}{l}\,dx.$$
Next, we need the magnetic moment produced by this small current loop. The standard formula for the magnetic moment of a current loop is
$$\mu = I \times \text{(area of the loop)}.$$
Here each element travels in a circle of radius $$x$$, whose area is
$$A = \pi x^{2}.$$
Hence the infinitesimal magnetic moment is
$$d\mu = dI \; A = \left(n\,\rho_0\frac{x}{l}\,dx\right)\!\left(\pi x^{2}\right) = n\,\pi\,\rho_0\,\frac{x^{3}}{l}\,dx.$$
To obtain the net magnetic moment of the entire rod we integrate from $$x=0$$ to $$x=l$$:
$$\mu = \int_{0}^{l} d\mu = n\,\pi\,\rho_0\,\frac{1}{l}\int_{0}^{l} x^{3}\,dx.$$
Carrying out the integral,
$$\int_{0}^{l} x^{3}\,dx = \left.\frac{x^{4}}{4}\right|_{0}^{l} = \frac{l^{4}}{4}.$$
Substituting this result, we get
$$\mu = n\,\pi\,\rho_0\,\frac{1}{l}\,\frac{l^{4}}{4} = \frac{\pi}{4}\,n\,\rho_0\,l^{3}.$$
Because the rod rotates uniformly, this value is already the time-averaged magnetic moment.
Hence, the correct answer is Option A.
Create a FREE account and get:
Predict your JEE Main percentile, rank & performance in seconds
Educational materials for JEE preparation
Ask our AI anything
AI can make mistakes. Please verify important information.
AI can make mistakes. Please verify important information.