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The difference in the number of waves when yellow light propagates through air and vacuum columns of the same thickness is one. The thickness of the air column is _________ mm. [Refractive index of air = 1.0003, the wavelength of yellow light in vacuum = 6000 Å]
Correct Answer: 2
Let the common thickness of the two columns be $$t$$.
For a light beam, the number of complete waves contained in a distance is obtained by dividing the distance by the wavelength in that medium. Hence, in a column of thickness $$t$$:
$$\text{Number of waves in vacuum} = N_{\text{vac}} = \dfrac{t}{\lambda_0}$$
where $$\lambda_0$$ is the wavelength of yellow light in vacuum. We are given
$$\lambda_0 = 6000\;\text{\AA} = 6000 \times 10^{-10}\;\text{m} = 6.0 \times 10^{-7}\;\text{m}.$$
Inside air the speed (and hence the wavelength) changes according to the refractive index. First we recall the basic relationship
$$n = \dfrac{\text{speed in vacuum}}{\text{speed in medium}} = \dfrac{\lambda_0}{\lambda_{\text{air}}}.$$
Re-arranging for the wavelength in air, we have
$$\lambda_{\text{air}} = \dfrac{\lambda_0}{n}.$$
The refractive index of air is supplied as $$n = 1.0003$$, so the wavelength in air becomes
$$\lambda_{\text{air}} = \dfrac{6.0 \times 10^{-7}\;\text{m}}{1.0003}.$$
Next we write the number of waves in the air column:
$$\text{Number of waves in air} = N_{\text{air}} = \dfrac{t}{\lambda_{\text{air}}} = \dfrac{t}{\lambda_0/n} = \dfrac{n\,t}{\lambda_0}.$$
The statement in the question says that the difference between the two wave counts equals one:
$$|N_{\text{air}} - N_{\text{vac}}| = 1.$$
Because air’s wavelength is slightly shorter, $$N_{\text{air}} > N_{\text{vac}}$$. Therefore we set
$$N_{\text{air}} - N_{\text{vac}} = 1.$$
Substituting the expressions we have derived:
$$\dfrac{n\,t}{\lambda_0} - \dfrac{t}{\lambda_0} = 1.$$
Factorising $$t/\lambda_0$$ gives
$$\dfrac{t}{\lambda_0}\,(n - 1) = 1.$$
Now we solve for the thickness $$t$$:
$$t = \dfrac{\lambda_0}{\,n - 1\,}.$$
Putting the numerical values,
$$t = \dfrac{6.0 \times 10^{-7}\;\text{m}}{1.0003 - 1} = \dfrac{6.0 \times 10^{-7}\;\text{m}}{0.0003}.$$
The division gives
$$t = 2.0 \times 10^{-3}\;\text{m}.$$
Converting metres to millimetres (since $$1\;\text{mm} = 10^{-3}\;\text{m}$$) we have
$$t = 2.0\;\text{mm}.$$
So, the answer is $$2\;\text{mm}$$.
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