IB Security Assistant Answer Key (2018-19) PDF

February 19, 2019

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IB Security Assistant 2019 Answer Key PDF:

The Intelligence Bureau (IB) has conducted IB Security Assistant Exam on 17th Feb 2019. IB has conducted the Tier- 1 exam for recruitment of 1054 Security Assistant Posts. Candidates can calculate their marks using the key.

IB Security Assistant Exam Analysis:

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Go to 18000 Free SSC Solved Questions

Students who have appeared for the exam described the exam level to be Easy.
Questions were arranged section wise Mathematics, GK, English and Reasoning.
In the General Awareness section, questions were mostly from Static GK and Biology.
Among all the sections, English was easy and most of the questions are from Fill In The Blanks, One Word Substitution and Incorrectly Spelt Word.

Section	Questions	Marks	Difficulty Level
Quantitative Aptitude	20	20	Easy
General Awareness	40	40	Easy
English	20	20	Very Easy
Logical/Analytical Ability	20	20	Moderate
Total	100	100	Easy

The Minimum Cut Off Marks category wise are as below:

UR: 35
OBC: 34
SC: 33
ST: 33

On the basis of Tier- 1 exam candidates will be shortlisted for Tier- 2 and Tier- 3. Tier- 2 Exam is of qualifying in nature. The minimum cut off marks for tier- 2 exam for all categories will be same.

IB Security 2019 Answer Key:

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Download SSC CGL Previous Papers PDF

Question 1: What are the Highest Common Factor and Lowest Common Multiple of 6, 72, 120?

a) 12, 180

b) 6, 360

c) 360, 6

d) 12, 360

Question 2: If a quadratic polynomial y = $ax^2+ bx + c$ intersects x axis at α and β, then

a) α + β = -b/a

b) α + β = a/b

c) α × β = a/c

d) α/β = 1

Question 3: If in two linear equations ax + by = c and dx + ey = f and a/d = b/e = c/f then, which of the following is true about the two equations?

a) They represents intersecting lines

b) They represent coincident lines

c) Have a unique solution.

d) None of these

Question 4: Roots of the quadratic equations $2x^2 + x – 528$ = 0 is:

a) 16

b) -33/2

c) Both a & b

d) None of these

Question 5: Sum of all positive integers from 1 to 100 is:

a) 5050

b) 5020

c) 10800

d) 2400

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Question 6: If area of similar triangles Δ ABC and Δ DEF be 64 sq cm and 121 sq cm and EF = 15.4 cm then BC equals:

a) 8 cm

b) 18 cm

c) 11.2 cm

d) 8.2 cm

Question 7: Area of a triangle with vertices at (2, 3), (-1, 0) and (2, -4) is:

a) 21/2 cm

b) 21/2 sq units

c) 21 sq units

d) None of these

Question 8: 2 × tan 30° / $(1 + tan^2 30°)$ equals:

a) sin 60°

b) cos 60°

c) tan 60°

d) sin 30°

Question 9: The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on ground which is 30 mtrs. away from the foot of the tower is 30°. Height of the tower is:

a) 10/√3 mtrs.

b) 10 × √3 mtrs.

c) 100 mtrs.

d) 20 mtrs.

Question 10: The length of a tangent from a point A at a distance 5 cms. from the centre of the circle is 4 cms. Radius of the circle is

a) 2 cms

b) 3 cms

c) √3 cms

d) √3/2 cms

Question 11: Length of a minute hand of a clock is 14 cms. Area swept by the minute hand in 5 minutes is:

a) 154 sq cms

b) 154/3 sq cms

c) 210 sq cms

d) 154/√3 sq cms

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Question 12: A metallic sphere of radius 4.2 cms. is melted and recast into the shape of a cylinder of radius 6 cms. Height of the resultant cylinder would be:

a) 110 cms

b) 3.84 cms

c) 30 cms

d) 2.74 cms

Question 13: A box contains 3 blue, 2 white and 4 red marbles. If a marble is drawn at random from the box, what is the probability that it would be white.

a) Cannot be determined

b) 1

c) 7/9

d) 2/9

Question 14: Which of the following cannot be the probability of an event?

a) 2/3

b) -1.5

c) 15%

d) 0.7

Question 15: Mean of a grouped data calculated using direct method, assumed mean method or step deviation method:

a) is the same

b) Varies slightly

c) Has huge variation

d) None of these

Question 16: Which of the following is a Prime Number?

a) 12

b) 7

c) 9

d) 4

Question 17: If polynomial P(x) = $x^3 – 3x^2 + 5x – 3$ is divided by polynomial G(x) = $x^2 – 2$, the quotient and remainder are:

a) x – 3, 7x – 9

b) x, 7x

c) x – 3, 7x

d) x, 7x – 9

Question 18: If in triangle ABC, if side AB = 6√3, AC = 12 and BC = 6, then angle B equals:

a) 120°

b) 60°

c) 90°

d) 45°

Question 19: What are the coordinates of the point which divides the line joining (-1, 7) and (4, -3) in the ratio 2 : 3?

a) (7, 4)

b) (9, 9)

c) (1, 3)

d) (4, 7)

Question 20: Volume of a cone with radius r and height h is:

a) $rh^2$

b) $πr^2h/2$

c) πrh/3

d) $πr^2h/3$

Question 21: International Day of Yoga is celebrated annually on:

a) 21 June

b) 10 December

c) 21 July

d) 21 September

Question 22: City of lakes’ in India is:

a) Lucknow

b) Chandigarh

c) Bengaluru

d) Udaipur

Question 23: Which of the diseases is not caused by virus?

a) TB

b) Chickenpox

c) Dengue

d) Polio

Question 24: How many states are there in India?

a) 26

b) 28

c) 27

d) 29

Question 25: During Akbar’s regime, who carried out land revenue reforms:

a) Mann Singh

b) Todar Mal

c) Birbal

d) Tansen

Question 26: Which of the following is the unit of heat?

a) Joule

b) Ohm

c) Ampere

d) Volt

Question 27: . Who among the following is the future Buddha that is yet to come?

a) Lokes Varna

b) Maitreya

c) Laughing Buddha

d) Chanakya

Question 28: Jaundice is caused due to malfunctioning of:

a) Liver

b) Stomach

c) Pancreas

d) Kidney

Question 29: Tsangpo river flowing through Tibet is known in India as:

a) Brahmaputra

b) Ganges

c) Sutlej

d) Beas

Question 30: Yuri Gagarin, the first cosmonaut to reach space, was from which country?

a) UK

b) Japan

c) China

d) Russia

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Question 31: What is boiling point of water in Fahrenheit?

a) 100°F

b) 32°F

c) 212°F

d) 0°F

Question 32: Kalibangan, the Indus Valley site, is in:

a) Rajasthan

b) Gujarat

c) Madhya Pradesh

d) Uttar Pradesh

Question 33: Who was the founder of Banaras Hindu University?

a) Sukumar Dey

b) Madan Mohan Malviya

c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

d) Motilal Nehru

Question 34: Where do you find the temple of Angkorwat?

a) Thailand

b) Malaysia

c) Combodia

d) Myanmar

Question 35: Which of the following can cause a Tsunami?

a) Volcano

b) Avalanche

c) Tornado

d) Earthquake

Question 36: The Bhakra Dam in India is built on:

a) Beas River

b) Jhelum River

c) Sutlej River

d) Ghagra River

Question 37: Who wrote ‘Ramcharitmanas’?

a) Tulsidas

b) Vedvyas

c) Kalidas

d) Panini

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Question 38: The river known as Ganges of the South is:

a) Godavari

b) Krishna

c) Kaveri

d) None of these

Question 39: Where is the Tungbhadra Sanctuary located?

a) MP

b) UP

c) Karnataka

d) WB

Question 40: Where is Nanda Devi Mountain?

a) Uttrakhand

b) Rajasthan

c) Himachal Pradesh

d) Arunachal Pradesh

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Question 41: Jaya Samhita is the original name of:

a) Ramayana

b) Bhagwat Gita

c) Panchtantra

d) Mahabharata

Question 42: Rickets is caused due to deficiency of:

a) Vitamin D

b) Vitamin K

c) Vitamin B12

d) Vitamin A

Question 43: Who was the first woman speaker of Lok Sabha?

a) Sumitra Mahajan

b) Najma Heptullah

c) Meira Kumar

d) Paratibha Patil

Question 44: With which sport is term Butterfly associated with:

a) Kabaddi

b) Cricket

c) Football

d) Swimming

Question 45: The resolution for removal of Vice President of India should be moved in:

a) Lok Sabha

b) Rajya Sabha

c) Either of the Houses

d) None of these

Question 46: What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron fillings?

a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced

b) Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced

c) No reaction takes place

d) Iron salt and water are produced

Question 47: A solution turns red litmus paper blue. Its Ph is likely to be:

a) 1

b) 4

c) 5

d) 10

Question 48: An element reacts with oxygen to give a compound with a high melting point. This compound is also soluble in water. The element is likely to be:

a) Calcium

b) Carbon

c) Silicon

d) Iron

Question 49: While cooking, if the bottom of the vessel is getting blackened on the outside, it means that:

a) The food is not cooked completely

b) The fuel is not burning completely

c) The fuel is wet

d) The fuel is burning

Question 50: Which of the following statements is not correct about the trend _____ to right across the periods of the periodic table:

a) The elements become less metallic in nature

b) The number of valence electrons increase

c) Atoms lose their electron more easily

d) Oxides of the element become more acidic

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Question 51: Kidneys in human beings are a part of the system for:

a) Nutrition

b) Respiration

c) Excretion

d) Transportation

Question 52: The gap between two neurons is called a:

a) Dendrite

b) Synapse

c) Axon

d) Impulse

Question 53: In a plant, the anther contains:

a) Sepals

b) Ovules

c) Pistil

d) Pollen grains

Question 54: In evolutionary terms, we have more in common with:

a) A Chinese school boy

b) Chimpanzee

c) Spider

d) Bacterium

Question 55: Which of the following material cannot be used to make a lens?

a) Water

b) Glass

c) Plastic

d) Clay

Question 56: The human eyes form the image of an object at its:

a) Cornea

b) Iris

c) Pupil

d) Retina

Question 57: Which of the following terms does not represent electric power in a circuit?

a) I 2R

b) IR2

c) VI

d) V2/R

Question 58: The device used for producing electric current is called:

a) Generator

b) Galvanometer

c) Ammeter

d) Motor

Question 59: Which of the following is not an example of bio-mass energy source?

a) Wood

b) Gobar gas

c) Nuclear energy

d) Coal

Question 60: Which of the following constitute a food chain?

a) Grass, Wheat and Mango

b) Grass, Goat and Human

c) Goat, Cow and Elephant

d) Grass, Fish and Goat

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Instructions

complete the sentence by choosing the most appropriate option from those given below:

Question 61: Pleasure and pain are inseparable facets………….human existence.

a) In

b) On

c) Of

d) By

Question 62: Is there …… fitness centre near your house?

a) An

b) The

c) A

d) None of these

Question 63: He has hardly read …… book

a) Many

b) All

c) The

d) None of these

Question 64: …… of pain is real and affects one’s body, mind and spirit.

a) Experiencing

b) Experience

c) Experienced

d) None of these

Question 65: He drove with …… care and hence was fined by Traffic Police.

a) Much

b) Little

c) All

d) None of these

Question 66: …… cultural diversity attracts tourists from all over the world.

a) India’s

b) India

c) Both (a) & (b)

d) None of these

Question 67: I have been to …….doctor, whose name figured in the Times of India

a) The

b) An

c) Any

d) None of these

Question 68: The …… monkeys that escaped from Delhi Zoo were found eating bananas in a fruit shop.

a) Many

b) Three

c) All

d) Different

Question 69: We are …… to go out for a picnic tomorrow.

a) Plan

b) Planning

c) Plans

d) Think

Question 70: The train must …… reached Delhi by now.

a) Has

b) Had

c) Have

d) None of these

Instructions

select the word spelled incorrectly.

Question 71:

a) Mischeif

b) Belief

c) Thief

d) Grief

Question 72:

a) Familiar

b) Sin

c) Hammer

d) Grammer

Question 73:

a) Focal

b) Vocal

c) Vehical

d) Local

Question 74:

a) Carpenter

b) Denteist

c) Doctor

d) Plumber

Question 75:

a) Volkano

b) Crater

c) Lava

d) Earth

Instructions

please choose one of the alternatives that can be substituted for the given sentence.

Question 76: A person who believes in God.

a) Theist

b) Cynic

c) Atheist

d) None of these

Question 77: Story of an individual by himself.

a) Biography

b) Autobiography

c) History

d) None of these

Question 78: A book or paper written by hand.

a) Edition

b) Draft

c) Manuscript

d) None of these

Question 79: A number of ships.

a) Fleet

b) Galaxy

c) Constellation

d) Group

Question 80: A young cow.

a) Bovine

b) Herd

c) Calf

d) None of these

Instructions

find the odd one out of the choices given therein.

Question 81:

a) Vindhya

b) Satpura

c) Aravali

d) Dal Lake

Question 82:

a) Ganga

b) Yamuna

c) Brahmputra

d) Kaveri

Question 83:

a) Ammeter

b) Thermometer

c) Barometer

d) Temperature

Question 84:

a) Mango

b) Apple

c) Potato

d) Blackberry

Question 85:

a) Aizawal

b) Itanagar

c) Tripura

d) Shillong

Instructions

each question contains a pair of words. Find the relationship between these two words. Then choose from the options given in which the relationship is almost similar.

Question 86: Copper : Metal

a) Engine : Car

b) Furniture : Wood

c) Pen : Pencil

d) Pepper : Spice

Question 87: Granary : Wheat

a) Lake : Water

b) Wine : Grapes

c) Gallery : Art

d) Archive : Documents

Question 88: Albania : Europe

a) Sydney : Australia

b) Congo : South America

c) Bengaluru : India

d) Cote d’ Ivoire : Africa

Question 89: Uranium : Nuclear power plant

a) coal : washery

b) sand : sea

c) coal : thermal power plant

d) steam : furnace

Question 90: Hallikar : Cow

a) Dachshund : Dog

b) Gir : Lion

c) Goat : Lamb

d) Mule : Horse

Question 91: In the number series, what number should come next?
7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12,_______

a) 11

b) 15

c) 14

d) 10

Question 92: What comes next R, U, X, A, D, ______?

a) F

b) G

c) H

d) I

Question 93: If the 7th day of a month is 3 days earlier than Friday, then what day will be on the 19th day of the month?

a) Sunday

b) Monday

c) Wednesday

d) Friday

Question 94: If EARN is related to RANE and BOND is related to NODB, in the same way TEAR is related to:

a) ATRE

b) AERT

c) ARFT

d) REAT

Question 95: Average age of a father and his son is 22 years. Ratio of their age is 10 : 1,
what is the age of the son?

a) 24 years

b) 4 years

c) 40 years

d) 6 years

Instructions

each question comprises of a statement and two conclusions (I) and (II). Assuming that
the statement is true, which of the conclusions follow logically from the statement?

Question 96: Statement:In a one day cricket match, a team made 200 runs, out of which 160 runs were
made by spinners.
Conclusions:
i) 80% of team consists of spinners.
ii) Opening batsmen were spinners.